Is the Fourier transform of a continuous function necessarily in $L^{infty}$?
This is a followup to this earlier question. Given a (let's say continuous) function $f:mathbb{R} to mathbb{C}$ such that the Fourier Transform
$$widehat{f}(y)=int_{mathbb{R}} f(x)e^{-2pi i xy} dx$$
exists for all $y in mathbb{R}$, does it follow that $widehat{f} in L^{infty}$ i.e. there is a constant $C$ (depending on $f$) such that $vert widehat{f}(y)vert le C$ for all $y$?
This would trivially be true if $f in L^1$, but we are not assuming that. This of course also means that the integrals should better not be absolutely convergent. Instead we require convergence only in the sense that both $lim_{Tto infty} int_0^T$ and $lim_{T to infty} int_{-T}^0$ exist.
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
add a comment |
This is a followup to this earlier question. Given a (let's say continuous) function $f:mathbb{R} to mathbb{C}$ such that the Fourier Transform
$$widehat{f}(y)=int_{mathbb{R}} f(x)e^{-2pi i xy} dx$$
exists for all $y in mathbb{R}$, does it follow that $widehat{f} in L^{infty}$ i.e. there is a constant $C$ (depending on $f$) such that $vert widehat{f}(y)vert le C$ for all $y$?
This would trivially be true if $f in L^1$, but we are not assuming that. This of course also means that the integrals should better not be absolutely convergent. Instead we require convergence only in the sense that both $lim_{Tto infty} int_0^T$ and $lim_{T to infty} int_{-T}^0$ exist.
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
1
I think the answer is negative. By the closed graph theorems if every continuous function $f$ would have $hat{f}$ in $L^infty$ that would mean that the Fourier transform is a bounded map between $CB(mathbb R)$, the bounded continuous functions and $L^infty(mathbb R)$. This will imply that $| hat{f} |_infty leq C , | f |_infty$. You can verify that there is no such $C$ by taking Gaussian $e^{t x^2}$, whose Fourier transforms have norm $t^{-1/2}$ despite the original function being bounded.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:37
I guess that the largest class of Function that satisfy what you require are those $g$ such that $hat{g} in H^infty(mathbb{R})$, the real hardy space. But I am not sure.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:40
Choose $h$ increasing to $1$ and satisfying $int_0^infty ysin(e^y)h(y)dy=0$. Then look at $f(x) =int_0^infty e^{2i pi xy} y sin(e^y)h(y)$ and try applying the Fourier inversion theorem.
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 20:18
add a comment |
This is a followup to this earlier question. Given a (let's say continuous) function $f:mathbb{R} to mathbb{C}$ such that the Fourier Transform
$$widehat{f}(y)=int_{mathbb{R}} f(x)e^{-2pi i xy} dx$$
exists for all $y in mathbb{R}$, does it follow that $widehat{f} in L^{infty}$ i.e. there is a constant $C$ (depending on $f$) such that $vert widehat{f}(y)vert le C$ for all $y$?
This would trivially be true if $f in L^1$, but we are not assuming that. This of course also means that the integrals should better not be absolutely convergent. Instead we require convergence only in the sense that both $lim_{Tto infty} int_0^T$ and $lim_{T to infty} int_{-T}^0$ exist.
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
This is a followup to this earlier question. Given a (let's say continuous) function $f:mathbb{R} to mathbb{C}$ such that the Fourier Transform
$$widehat{f}(y)=int_{mathbb{R}} f(x)e^{-2pi i xy} dx$$
exists for all $y in mathbb{R}$, does it follow that $widehat{f} in L^{infty}$ i.e. there is a constant $C$ (depending on $f$) such that $vert widehat{f}(y)vert le C$ for all $y$?
This would trivially be true if $f in L^1$, but we are not assuming that. This of course also means that the integrals should better not be absolutely convergent. Instead we require convergence only in the sense that both $lim_{Tto infty} int_0^T$ and $lim_{T to infty} int_{-T}^0$ exist.
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
asked Nov 28 '18 at 21:00
Tintarn
2,668514
2,668514
1
I think the answer is negative. By the closed graph theorems if every continuous function $f$ would have $hat{f}$ in $L^infty$ that would mean that the Fourier transform is a bounded map between $CB(mathbb R)$, the bounded continuous functions and $L^infty(mathbb R)$. This will imply that $| hat{f} |_infty leq C , | f |_infty$. You can verify that there is no such $C$ by taking Gaussian $e^{t x^2}$, whose Fourier transforms have norm $t^{-1/2}$ despite the original function being bounded.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:37
I guess that the largest class of Function that satisfy what you require are those $g$ such that $hat{g} in H^infty(mathbb{R})$, the real hardy space. But I am not sure.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:40
Choose $h$ increasing to $1$ and satisfying $int_0^infty ysin(e^y)h(y)dy=0$. Then look at $f(x) =int_0^infty e^{2i pi xy} y sin(e^y)h(y)$ and try applying the Fourier inversion theorem.
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 20:18
add a comment |
1
I think the answer is negative. By the closed graph theorems if every continuous function $f$ would have $hat{f}$ in $L^infty$ that would mean that the Fourier transform is a bounded map between $CB(mathbb R)$, the bounded continuous functions and $L^infty(mathbb R)$. This will imply that $| hat{f} |_infty leq C , | f |_infty$. You can verify that there is no such $C$ by taking Gaussian $e^{t x^2}$, whose Fourier transforms have norm $t^{-1/2}$ despite the original function being bounded.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:37
I guess that the largest class of Function that satisfy what you require are those $g$ such that $hat{g} in H^infty(mathbb{R})$, the real hardy space. But I am not sure.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:40
Choose $h$ increasing to $1$ and satisfying $int_0^infty ysin(e^y)h(y)dy=0$. Then look at $f(x) =int_0^infty e^{2i pi xy} y sin(e^y)h(y)$ and try applying the Fourier inversion theorem.
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 20:18
1
1
I think the answer is negative. By the closed graph theorems if every continuous function $f$ would have $hat{f}$ in $L^infty$ that would mean that the Fourier transform is a bounded map between $CB(mathbb R)$, the bounded continuous functions and $L^infty(mathbb R)$. This will imply that $| hat{f} |_infty leq C , | f |_infty$. You can verify that there is no such $C$ by taking Gaussian $e^{t x^2}$, whose Fourier transforms have norm $t^{-1/2}$ despite the original function being bounded.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:37
I think the answer is negative. By the closed graph theorems if every continuous function $f$ would have $hat{f}$ in $L^infty$ that would mean that the Fourier transform is a bounded map between $CB(mathbb R)$, the bounded continuous functions and $L^infty(mathbb R)$. This will imply that $| hat{f} |_infty leq C , | f |_infty$. You can verify that there is no such $C$ by taking Gaussian $e^{t x^2}$, whose Fourier transforms have norm $t^{-1/2}$ despite the original function being bounded.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:37
I guess that the largest class of Function that satisfy what you require are those $g$ such that $hat{g} in H^infty(mathbb{R})$, the real hardy space. But I am not sure.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:40
I guess that the largest class of Function that satisfy what you require are those $g$ such that $hat{g} in H^infty(mathbb{R})$, the real hardy space. But I am not sure.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:40
Choose $h$ increasing to $1$ and satisfying $int_0^infty ysin(e^y)h(y)dy=0$. Then look at $f(x) =int_0^infty e^{2i pi xy} y sin(e^y)h(y)$ and try applying the Fourier inversion theorem.
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 20:18
Choose $h$ increasing to $1$ and satisfying $int_0^infty ysin(e^y)h(y)dy=0$. Then look at $f(x) =int_0^infty e^{2i pi xy} y sin(e^y)h(y)$ and try applying the Fourier inversion theorem.
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 20:18
add a comment |
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It is not necessary that $hat{f} in L^infty$.
Consider the Fourier transform defined as $hat{f}(y) = int_{-infty}^infty f(x) e^{iyx} , dx$. We can construct a counterexample where $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m (in mathbb{N}) to infty$, using the function
$$f(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty f_n(x) = sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n e^{-inx}}{x}sinleft[(2n^3)^{-1}x right] chi_{[-n^4,n^4]}(x)$$
The series converges uniformly since $|f_n(x)| leqslant frac{1}{2n^2}$ and we can switch sum and integral to get
$$hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_{-n^4}^{n^4}frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} , dx$$
Note that
$$frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}+ i frac{sin[(m-n)x]sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}$$
The second term on the RHS is an odd function whose integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ vanishes and the first term reduces to
$$frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{sin[(|m-n| + (2n^3)^{-1})x] - sin[(|m-n| - (2n^3)^{-1})x]}{2x}$$
Since this is an even function, the integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ is twice the integral over $[0,n^4]$, and we have with $alpha_{m,n} = |m-n|$ and $beta_n = (2n^3)^{-1}$,
$$tag{*}hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m.n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} ,,, dx \ = 2m int_0^{m^4} frac{sin(beta_mx)}{x} , dx + sum_{nneq m} nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m,n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} , dx $$
We have the well-known results (where $c > 0$):
$$tag{**}int_0^z frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx = frac{pi}{2} - int_z^infty frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx , \ - frac{2}{cz} leqslant int_z^infty frac{sin(cx)}{x} , dx leqslant frac{2}{cz}$$
Since $alpha_{m,n} - beta_n = |m-n| - beta_n geqslant 1 - 1/2 > 0$ if $m neq n$, we can apply (**) to (*) and obtain
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - sum_{n neq m} frac{2n}{n^4}left(frac{1}{alpha_{m,n}+beta_n} + frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n} right)$$
Since
$$- frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} + beta_n} - frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n}geqslant - frac{1}{1 + 0}- frac{1}{1 - 1/2} = -3,$$
we have
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - 6sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^3}, $$
and $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m to infty$.
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It is not necessary that $hat{f} in L^infty$.
Consider the Fourier transform defined as $hat{f}(y) = int_{-infty}^infty f(x) e^{iyx} , dx$. We can construct a counterexample where $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m (in mathbb{N}) to infty$, using the function
$$f(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty f_n(x) = sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n e^{-inx}}{x}sinleft[(2n^3)^{-1}x right] chi_{[-n^4,n^4]}(x)$$
The series converges uniformly since $|f_n(x)| leqslant frac{1}{2n^2}$ and we can switch sum and integral to get
$$hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_{-n^4}^{n^4}frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} , dx$$
Note that
$$frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}+ i frac{sin[(m-n)x]sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}$$
The second term on the RHS is an odd function whose integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ vanishes and the first term reduces to
$$frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{sin[(|m-n| + (2n^3)^{-1})x] - sin[(|m-n| - (2n^3)^{-1})x]}{2x}$$
Since this is an even function, the integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ is twice the integral over $[0,n^4]$, and we have with $alpha_{m,n} = |m-n|$ and $beta_n = (2n^3)^{-1}$,
$$tag{*}hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m.n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} ,,, dx \ = 2m int_0^{m^4} frac{sin(beta_mx)}{x} , dx + sum_{nneq m} nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m,n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} , dx $$
We have the well-known results (where $c > 0$):
$$tag{**}int_0^z frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx = frac{pi}{2} - int_z^infty frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx , \ - frac{2}{cz} leqslant int_z^infty frac{sin(cx)}{x} , dx leqslant frac{2}{cz}$$
Since $alpha_{m,n} - beta_n = |m-n| - beta_n geqslant 1 - 1/2 > 0$ if $m neq n$, we can apply (**) to (*) and obtain
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - sum_{n neq m} frac{2n}{n^4}left(frac{1}{alpha_{m,n}+beta_n} + frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n} right)$$
Since
$$- frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} + beta_n} - frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n}geqslant - frac{1}{1 + 0}- frac{1}{1 - 1/2} = -3,$$
we have
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - 6sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^3}, $$
and $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m to infty$.
add a comment |
It is not necessary that $hat{f} in L^infty$.
Consider the Fourier transform defined as $hat{f}(y) = int_{-infty}^infty f(x) e^{iyx} , dx$. We can construct a counterexample where $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m (in mathbb{N}) to infty$, using the function
$$f(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty f_n(x) = sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n e^{-inx}}{x}sinleft[(2n^3)^{-1}x right] chi_{[-n^4,n^4]}(x)$$
The series converges uniformly since $|f_n(x)| leqslant frac{1}{2n^2}$ and we can switch sum and integral to get
$$hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_{-n^4}^{n^4}frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} , dx$$
Note that
$$frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}+ i frac{sin[(m-n)x]sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}$$
The second term on the RHS is an odd function whose integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ vanishes and the first term reduces to
$$frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{sin[(|m-n| + (2n^3)^{-1})x] - sin[(|m-n| - (2n^3)^{-1})x]}{2x}$$
Since this is an even function, the integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ is twice the integral over $[0,n^4]$, and we have with $alpha_{m,n} = |m-n|$ and $beta_n = (2n^3)^{-1}$,
$$tag{*}hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m.n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} ,,, dx \ = 2m int_0^{m^4} frac{sin(beta_mx)}{x} , dx + sum_{nneq m} nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m,n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} , dx $$
We have the well-known results (where $c > 0$):
$$tag{**}int_0^z frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx = frac{pi}{2} - int_z^infty frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx , \ - frac{2}{cz} leqslant int_z^infty frac{sin(cx)}{x} , dx leqslant frac{2}{cz}$$
Since $alpha_{m,n} - beta_n = |m-n| - beta_n geqslant 1 - 1/2 > 0$ if $m neq n$, we can apply (**) to (*) and obtain
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - sum_{n neq m} frac{2n}{n^4}left(frac{1}{alpha_{m,n}+beta_n} + frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n} right)$$
Since
$$- frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} + beta_n} - frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n}geqslant - frac{1}{1 + 0}- frac{1}{1 - 1/2} = -3,$$
we have
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - 6sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^3}, $$
and $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m to infty$.
add a comment |
It is not necessary that $hat{f} in L^infty$.
Consider the Fourier transform defined as $hat{f}(y) = int_{-infty}^infty f(x) e^{iyx} , dx$. We can construct a counterexample where $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m (in mathbb{N}) to infty$, using the function
$$f(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty f_n(x) = sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n e^{-inx}}{x}sinleft[(2n^3)^{-1}x right] chi_{[-n^4,n^4]}(x)$$
The series converges uniformly since $|f_n(x)| leqslant frac{1}{2n^2}$ and we can switch sum and integral to get
$$hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_{-n^4}^{n^4}frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} , dx$$
Note that
$$frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}+ i frac{sin[(m-n)x]sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}$$
The second term on the RHS is an odd function whose integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ vanishes and the first term reduces to
$$frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{sin[(|m-n| + (2n^3)^{-1})x] - sin[(|m-n| - (2n^3)^{-1})x]}{2x}$$
Since this is an even function, the integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ is twice the integral over $[0,n^4]$, and we have with $alpha_{m,n} = |m-n|$ and $beta_n = (2n^3)^{-1}$,
$$tag{*}hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m.n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} ,,, dx \ = 2m int_0^{m^4} frac{sin(beta_mx)}{x} , dx + sum_{nneq m} nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m,n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} , dx $$
We have the well-known results (where $c > 0$):
$$tag{**}int_0^z frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx = frac{pi}{2} - int_z^infty frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx , \ - frac{2}{cz} leqslant int_z^infty frac{sin(cx)}{x} , dx leqslant frac{2}{cz}$$
Since $alpha_{m,n} - beta_n = |m-n| - beta_n geqslant 1 - 1/2 > 0$ if $m neq n$, we can apply (**) to (*) and obtain
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - sum_{n neq m} frac{2n}{n^4}left(frac{1}{alpha_{m,n}+beta_n} + frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n} right)$$
Since
$$- frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} + beta_n} - frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n}geqslant - frac{1}{1 + 0}- frac{1}{1 - 1/2} = -3,$$
we have
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - 6sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^3}, $$
and $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m to infty$.
It is not necessary that $hat{f} in L^infty$.
Consider the Fourier transform defined as $hat{f}(y) = int_{-infty}^infty f(x) e^{iyx} , dx$. We can construct a counterexample where $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m (in mathbb{N}) to infty$, using the function
$$f(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty f_n(x) = sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n e^{-inx}}{x}sinleft[(2n^3)^{-1}x right] chi_{[-n^4,n^4]}(x)$$
The series converges uniformly since $|f_n(x)| leqslant frac{1}{2n^2}$ and we can switch sum and integral to get
$$hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_{-n^4}^{n^4}frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} , dx$$
Note that
$$frac{e^{i(m-n)x}sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}+ i frac{sin[(m-n)x]sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x}$$
The second term on the RHS is an odd function whose integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ vanishes and the first term reduces to
$$frac{cos[(m-n)x] sin[(2n^3)^{-1}x]}{x} = frac{sin[(|m-n| + (2n^3)^{-1})x] - sin[(|m-n| - (2n^3)^{-1})x]}{2x}$$
Since this is an even function, the integral over $[-n^4,n^4]$ is twice the integral over $[0,n^4]$, and we have with $alpha_{m,n} = |m-n|$ and $beta_n = (2n^3)^{-1}$,
$$tag{*}hat{f}(m) = sum_{n=1}^infty nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m.n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} ,,, dx \ = 2m int_0^{m^4} frac{sin(beta_mx)}{x} , dx + sum_{nneq m} nint_0^{n^4}frac{sin[(alpha_{m,n} + beta_n)x] - sin[(alpha_{m,n} - beta_n)x]}{x} , dx $$
We have the well-known results (where $c > 0$):
$$tag{**}int_0^z frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx = frac{pi}{2} - int_z^infty frac{sin (cx)}{x} , dx , \ - frac{2}{cz} leqslant int_z^infty frac{sin(cx)}{x} , dx leqslant frac{2}{cz}$$
Since $alpha_{m,n} - beta_n = |m-n| - beta_n geqslant 1 - 1/2 > 0$ if $m neq n$, we can apply (**) to (*) and obtain
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - sum_{n neq m} frac{2n}{n^4}left(frac{1}{alpha_{m,n}+beta_n} + frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n} right)$$
Since
$$- frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} + beta_n} - frac{1}{alpha_{m,n} - beta_n}geqslant - frac{1}{1 + 0}- frac{1}{1 - 1/2} = -3,$$
we have
$$hat{f}(m) > pi m - 8 - 6sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^3}, $$
and $hat{f}(m) to infty$ as $m to infty$.
answered Nov 29 '18 at 18:20
RRL
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1
I think the answer is negative. By the closed graph theorems if every continuous function $f$ would have $hat{f}$ in $L^infty$ that would mean that the Fourier transform is a bounded map between $CB(mathbb R)$, the bounded continuous functions and $L^infty(mathbb R)$. This will imply that $| hat{f} |_infty leq C , | f |_infty$. You can verify that there is no such $C$ by taking Gaussian $e^{t x^2}$, whose Fourier transforms have norm $t^{-1/2}$ despite the original function being bounded.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:37
I guess that the largest class of Function that satisfy what you require are those $g$ such that $hat{g} in H^infty(mathbb{R})$, the real hardy space. But I am not sure.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Nov 29 '18 at 12:40
Choose $h$ increasing to $1$ and satisfying $int_0^infty ysin(e^y)h(y)dy=0$. Then look at $f(x) =int_0^infty e^{2i pi xy} y sin(e^y)h(y)$ and try applying the Fourier inversion theorem.
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 20:18