Show that a set of homotopy classes has a single element












3












$begingroup$


This is from Munkres section 51 problem 2b




Given spaces $X$ and $Y$ let $[X,Y]$ denote the set of homotopy classes of maps of $X$ into $Y$. Show that if $Y$ is path connected, the set $[I,Y]$ has a single element. Here $I=[0,1]$.




My approach to the problem is as follows. Let $f,g in [I,Y]$ and $f,g:I to Y$ be continuous functions. First I define a function $F(x,t)=f(x(1-t))$. Hence $F(x,0)=f(x)$ and $F(x,1)=f(0)$. This show that $F$ is a homotopy from $f$ to $e_{f(0)}$. Likewise, define $G(x,t)=g(xt).$ Here $G(x,1)=g(x)$ and $G(x,0)=g(0)$. This shows that $G$ is a homotopy from $g$ to the constant function $e_{g(0)}$. Since $Y$ is path connected we can find a path that forces a homotopy between $e_{g(0)}$ and $e_{f(0)}$. Hence $fcong e_{f(0)}cong e_{g(0)} cong g$.



Is this the right strategy?










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yeah. This is a good strategy. To really sell it, wrap it all together in one homotopy.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:50






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    To be precise, $[X,Y]$ is the set of homotopy classes of continuous maps $Xto Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:54
















3












$begingroup$


This is from Munkres section 51 problem 2b




Given spaces $X$ and $Y$ let $[X,Y]$ denote the set of homotopy classes of maps of $X$ into $Y$. Show that if $Y$ is path connected, the set $[I,Y]$ has a single element. Here $I=[0,1]$.




My approach to the problem is as follows. Let $f,g in [I,Y]$ and $f,g:I to Y$ be continuous functions. First I define a function $F(x,t)=f(x(1-t))$. Hence $F(x,0)=f(x)$ and $F(x,1)=f(0)$. This show that $F$ is a homotopy from $f$ to $e_{f(0)}$. Likewise, define $G(x,t)=g(xt).$ Here $G(x,1)=g(x)$ and $G(x,0)=g(0)$. This shows that $G$ is a homotopy from $g$ to the constant function $e_{g(0)}$. Since $Y$ is path connected we can find a path that forces a homotopy between $e_{g(0)}$ and $e_{f(0)}$. Hence $fcong e_{f(0)}cong e_{g(0)} cong g$.



Is this the right strategy?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yeah. This is a good strategy. To really sell it, wrap it all together in one homotopy.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:50






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    To be precise, $[X,Y]$ is the set of homotopy classes of continuous maps $Xto Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:54














3












3








3





$begingroup$


This is from Munkres section 51 problem 2b




Given spaces $X$ and $Y$ let $[X,Y]$ denote the set of homotopy classes of maps of $X$ into $Y$. Show that if $Y$ is path connected, the set $[I,Y]$ has a single element. Here $I=[0,1]$.




My approach to the problem is as follows. Let $f,g in [I,Y]$ and $f,g:I to Y$ be continuous functions. First I define a function $F(x,t)=f(x(1-t))$. Hence $F(x,0)=f(x)$ and $F(x,1)=f(0)$. This show that $F$ is a homotopy from $f$ to $e_{f(0)}$. Likewise, define $G(x,t)=g(xt).$ Here $G(x,1)=g(x)$ and $G(x,0)=g(0)$. This shows that $G$ is a homotopy from $g$ to the constant function $e_{g(0)}$. Since $Y$ is path connected we can find a path that forces a homotopy between $e_{g(0)}$ and $e_{f(0)}$. Hence $fcong e_{f(0)}cong e_{g(0)} cong g$.



Is this the right strategy?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




This is from Munkres section 51 problem 2b




Given spaces $X$ and $Y$ let $[X,Y]$ denote the set of homotopy classes of maps of $X$ into $Y$. Show that if $Y$ is path connected, the set $[I,Y]$ has a single element. Here $I=[0,1]$.




My approach to the problem is as follows. Let $f,g in [I,Y]$ and $f,g:I to Y$ be continuous functions. First I define a function $F(x,t)=f(x(1-t))$. Hence $F(x,0)=f(x)$ and $F(x,1)=f(0)$. This show that $F$ is a homotopy from $f$ to $e_{f(0)}$. Likewise, define $G(x,t)=g(xt).$ Here $G(x,1)=g(x)$ and $G(x,0)=g(0)$. This shows that $G$ is a homotopy from $g$ to the constant function $e_{g(0)}$. Since $Y$ is path connected we can find a path that forces a homotopy between $e_{g(0)}$ and $e_{f(0)}$. Hence $fcong e_{f(0)}cong e_{g(0)} cong g$.



Is this the right strategy?







general-topology homotopy-theory






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edited Mar 31 '16 at 3:53









Math1000

19k31745




19k31745










asked Mar 31 '16 at 3:07









emkaemka

2,46973074




2,46973074








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yeah. This is a good strategy. To really sell it, wrap it all together in one homotopy.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:50






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    To be precise, $[X,Y]$ is the set of homotopy classes of continuous maps $Xto Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:54














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yeah. This is a good strategy. To really sell it, wrap it all together in one homotopy.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex S
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:50






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    To be precise, $[X,Y]$ is the set of homotopy classes of continuous maps $Xto Y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Mar 31 '16 at 3:54








2




2




$begingroup$
Yeah. This is a good strategy. To really sell it, wrap it all together in one homotopy.
$endgroup$
– Alex S
Mar 31 '16 at 3:50




$begingroup$
Yeah. This is a good strategy. To really sell it, wrap it all together in one homotopy.
$endgroup$
– Alex S
Mar 31 '16 at 3:50




2




2




$begingroup$
To be precise, $[X,Y]$ is the set of homotopy classes of continuous maps $Xto Y$.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Mar 31 '16 at 3:54




$begingroup$
To be precise, $[X,Y]$ is the set of homotopy classes of continuous maps $Xto Y$.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Mar 31 '16 at 3:54










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Your proof is correct!



Just one comment, though: perhaps you can mention why the maps $F$ and $G$ are continuous, for the sake of more clarity.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    1 Answer
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    $begingroup$

    Your proof is correct!



    Just one comment, though: perhaps you can mention why the maps $F$ and $G$ are continuous, for the sake of more clarity.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Your proof is correct!



      Just one comment, though: perhaps you can mention why the maps $F$ and $G$ are continuous, for the sake of more clarity.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Your proof is correct!



        Just one comment, though: perhaps you can mention why the maps $F$ and $G$ are continuous, for the sake of more clarity.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Your proof is correct!



        Just one comment, though: perhaps you can mention why the maps $F$ and $G$ are continuous, for the sake of more clarity.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        answered Dec 4 '18 at 7:49


























        community wiki





        Brahadeesh































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