Induction proof verification?












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Using induction, I have to prove that $n^2+n$ is divisible by 2.
Here's how I did it, and I wanted to know if this is considered valid. I started with $(k+1)^2+(k+1)$, and after simplifying and factoring, I got $(k+2)(k+1)$. From this, can't I just say that if $k$ is odd, then the term $(k+1)$ becomes an even number, and when an even number is multiplied by an odd number, you get an even number which is always divisible by $2$. Then, the same logic can be applied for when $k$ is even and added to the term $(k+2)$? $Q.E.D$...?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Using induction, I have to prove that $n^2+n$ is divisible by 2.
    Here's how I did it, and I wanted to know if this is considered valid. I started with $(k+1)^2+(k+1)$, and after simplifying and factoring, I got $(k+2)(k+1)$. From this, can't I just say that if $k$ is odd, then the term $(k+1)$ becomes an even number, and when an even number is multiplied by an odd number, you get an even number which is always divisible by $2$. Then, the same logic can be applied for when $k$ is even and added to the term $(k+2)$? $Q.E.D$...?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Using induction, I have to prove that $n^2+n$ is divisible by 2.
      Here's how I did it, and I wanted to know if this is considered valid. I started with $(k+1)^2+(k+1)$, and after simplifying and factoring, I got $(k+2)(k+1)$. From this, can't I just say that if $k$ is odd, then the term $(k+1)$ becomes an even number, and when an even number is multiplied by an odd number, you get an even number which is always divisible by $2$. Then, the same logic can be applied for when $k$ is even and added to the term $(k+2)$? $Q.E.D$...?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Using induction, I have to prove that $n^2+n$ is divisible by 2.
      Here's how I did it, and I wanted to know if this is considered valid. I started with $(k+1)^2+(k+1)$, and after simplifying and factoring, I got $(k+2)(k+1)$. From this, can't I just say that if $k$ is odd, then the term $(k+1)$ becomes an even number, and when an even number is multiplied by an odd number, you get an even number which is always divisible by $2$. Then, the same logic can be applied for when $k$ is even and added to the term $(k+2)$? $Q.E.D$...?







      proof-verification induction






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      asked Dec 10 '18 at 1:38









      Jon dueJon due

      858




      858






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          There are many ways to prove this statement, but you are instructed to do so by induction. This means you must use the inductive hypothesis, i.e. will require you "capturing" something of the form $k^2+k$.



          In this case:



          $$(k+1)^2+(k+1) = (k^2+k)+2(k+1)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 2




            $begingroup$
            +1 I wish teachers would require induction only where it's the method of choice ...
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Dec 10 '18 at 1:47



















          0












          $begingroup$

          Base Case is trivial.



          We assume true for $n=k$, that is: $k^2+k=2m, min Bbb Z$



          Then show for $n=k+1$:



          $$(k+1)^2+k+1=k^2+2k+1+k+1=k^2+3k+2$$
          $$=(k^2+k)+2k+2=2m+2k+2=2(m+k+1)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            $begin{align}{bf Hint} f(k) &= (k+1),k\
            Rightarrow f(k+1) &= (k+1)(k+2)
            end{align}$



            $,Rightarrow f(k)$ & $f(k+1)$ have equal parity since $,k,$ & $,k+2,$ do. $ $



            Therefore $,f(k),$ even $,Rightarrow, f(k+1),$ even






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Notice no computation is needed this way (except adding 1).
              $endgroup$
              – Bill Dubuque
              Dec 10 '18 at 1:59













            Your Answer





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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes








            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            There are many ways to prove this statement, but you are instructed to do so by induction. This means you must use the inductive hypothesis, i.e. will require you "capturing" something of the form $k^2+k$.



            In this case:



            $$(k+1)^2+(k+1) = (k^2+k)+2(k+1)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              +1 I wish teachers would require induction only where it's the method of choice ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ethan Bolker
              Dec 10 '18 at 1:47
















            2












            $begingroup$

            There are many ways to prove this statement, but you are instructed to do so by induction. This means you must use the inductive hypothesis, i.e. will require you "capturing" something of the form $k^2+k$.



            In this case:



            $$(k+1)^2+(k+1) = (k^2+k)+2(k+1)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              +1 I wish teachers would require induction only where it's the method of choice ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ethan Bolker
              Dec 10 '18 at 1:47














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            There are many ways to prove this statement, but you are instructed to do so by induction. This means you must use the inductive hypothesis, i.e. will require you "capturing" something of the form $k^2+k$.



            In this case:



            $$(k+1)^2+(k+1) = (k^2+k)+2(k+1)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            There are many ways to prove this statement, but you are instructed to do so by induction. This means you must use the inductive hypothesis, i.e. will require you "capturing" something of the form $k^2+k$.



            In this case:



            $$(k+1)^2+(k+1) = (k^2+k)+2(k+1)$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 10 '18 at 1:42









            David PetersonDavid Peterson

            8,87621935




            8,87621935








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              +1 I wish teachers would require induction only where it's the method of choice ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ethan Bolker
              Dec 10 '18 at 1:47














            • 2




              $begingroup$
              +1 I wish teachers would require induction only where it's the method of choice ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ethan Bolker
              Dec 10 '18 at 1:47








            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            +1 I wish teachers would require induction only where it's the method of choice ...
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Dec 10 '18 at 1:47




            $begingroup$
            +1 I wish teachers would require induction only where it's the method of choice ...
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Dec 10 '18 at 1:47











            0












            $begingroup$

            Base Case is trivial.



            We assume true for $n=k$, that is: $k^2+k=2m, min Bbb Z$



            Then show for $n=k+1$:



            $$(k+1)^2+k+1=k^2+2k+1+k+1=k^2+3k+2$$
            $$=(k^2+k)+2k+2=2m+2k+2=2(m+k+1)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              Base Case is trivial.



              We assume true for $n=k$, that is: $k^2+k=2m, min Bbb Z$



              Then show for $n=k+1$:



              $$(k+1)^2+k+1=k^2+2k+1+k+1=k^2+3k+2$$
              $$=(k^2+k)+2k+2=2m+2k+2=2(m+k+1)$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Base Case is trivial.



                We assume true for $n=k$, that is: $k^2+k=2m, min Bbb Z$



                Then show for $n=k+1$:



                $$(k+1)^2+k+1=k^2+2k+1+k+1=k^2+3k+2$$
                $$=(k^2+k)+2k+2=2m+2k+2=2(m+k+1)$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Base Case is trivial.



                We assume true for $n=k$, that is: $k^2+k=2m, min Bbb Z$



                Then show for $n=k+1$:



                $$(k+1)^2+k+1=k^2+2k+1+k+1=k^2+3k+2$$
                $$=(k^2+k)+2k+2=2m+2k+2=2(m+k+1)$$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 10 '18 at 1:45









                Rhys HughesRhys Hughes

                6,7271530




                6,7271530























                    0












                    $begingroup$

                    $begin{align}{bf Hint} f(k) &= (k+1),k\
                    Rightarrow f(k+1) &= (k+1)(k+2)
                    end{align}$



                    $,Rightarrow f(k)$ & $f(k+1)$ have equal parity since $,k,$ & $,k+2,$ do. $ $



                    Therefore $,f(k),$ even $,Rightarrow, f(k+1),$ even






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Notice no computation is needed this way (except adding 1).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Bill Dubuque
                      Dec 10 '18 at 1:59


















                    0












                    $begingroup$

                    $begin{align}{bf Hint} f(k) &= (k+1),k\
                    Rightarrow f(k+1) &= (k+1)(k+2)
                    end{align}$



                    $,Rightarrow f(k)$ & $f(k+1)$ have equal parity since $,k,$ & $,k+2,$ do. $ $



                    Therefore $,f(k),$ even $,Rightarrow, f(k+1),$ even






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Notice no computation is needed this way (except adding 1).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Bill Dubuque
                      Dec 10 '18 at 1:59
















                    0












                    0








                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    $begin{align}{bf Hint} f(k) &= (k+1),k\
                    Rightarrow f(k+1) &= (k+1)(k+2)
                    end{align}$



                    $,Rightarrow f(k)$ & $f(k+1)$ have equal parity since $,k,$ & $,k+2,$ do. $ $



                    Therefore $,f(k),$ even $,Rightarrow, f(k+1),$ even






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    $begin{align}{bf Hint} f(k) &= (k+1),k\
                    Rightarrow f(k+1) &= (k+1)(k+2)
                    end{align}$



                    $,Rightarrow f(k)$ & $f(k+1)$ have equal parity since $,k,$ & $,k+2,$ do. $ $



                    Therefore $,f(k),$ even $,Rightarrow, f(k+1),$ even







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 10 '18 at 1:57









                    Bill DubuqueBill Dubuque

                    210k29192645




                    210k29192645












                    • $begingroup$
                      Notice no computation is needed this way (except adding 1).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Bill Dubuque
                      Dec 10 '18 at 1:59




















                    • $begingroup$
                      Notice no computation is needed this way (except adding 1).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Bill Dubuque
                      Dec 10 '18 at 1:59


















                    $begingroup$
                    Notice no computation is needed this way (except adding 1).
                    $endgroup$
                    – Bill Dubuque
                    Dec 10 '18 at 1:59






                    $begingroup$
                    Notice no computation is needed this way (except adding 1).
                    $endgroup$
                    – Bill Dubuque
                    Dec 10 '18 at 1:59




















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