What is $int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n cosh{x}) , mathrm{d}x$?












5












$begingroup$


I'm hoping to determine the value of the following integral:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n cosh{x}) , mathrm{d}x$$



Here is a plot of the integrand as a function of $x$ with parameter $n$ varying from 0 to 10.



enter image description here



The integral appears to not converge. However, it is known that
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n x) , mathrm{d}x = 2pi delta(n)$$



where $delta(x)$ is the Dirac delta function. Is it possible for the first integral to be expressed similarly using Dirac delta notation?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This integral is related to the Hankel function for which an integral representation is $${H^{(1)}_{nu}}left(zright)=frac{e^{-frac{1}{2}nupi i}}{pi i}int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{izcosh t-nu t}mathrm{d}t$$ Here, $nu=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    @PaulEnta, then for real $z$ the integral doesn't exist in the usual sense, does it? Or is the function analytically continued somehow?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @YuriyS The principal branch of the function has a branch cut along the negative reals. See here for example.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The representation $$Y_{0}left(xright)=-frac{2}{pi}int_{0}^{infty}cosleft(xcosh tright), mathrm{d}t$$ from here may be also helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:18
















5












$begingroup$


I'm hoping to determine the value of the following integral:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n cosh{x}) , mathrm{d}x$$



Here is a plot of the integrand as a function of $x$ with parameter $n$ varying from 0 to 10.



enter image description here



The integral appears to not converge. However, it is known that
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n x) , mathrm{d}x = 2pi delta(n)$$



where $delta(x)$ is the Dirac delta function. Is it possible for the first integral to be expressed similarly using Dirac delta notation?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This integral is related to the Hankel function for which an integral representation is $${H^{(1)}_{nu}}left(zright)=frac{e^{-frac{1}{2}nupi i}}{pi i}int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{izcosh t-nu t}mathrm{d}t$$ Here, $nu=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    @PaulEnta, then for real $z$ the integral doesn't exist in the usual sense, does it? Or is the function analytically continued somehow?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @YuriyS The principal branch of the function has a branch cut along the negative reals. See here for example.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The representation $$Y_{0}left(xright)=-frac{2}{pi}int_{0}^{infty}cosleft(xcosh tright), mathrm{d}t$$ from here may be also helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:18














5












5








5


0



$begingroup$


I'm hoping to determine the value of the following integral:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n cosh{x}) , mathrm{d}x$$



Here is a plot of the integrand as a function of $x$ with parameter $n$ varying from 0 to 10.



enter image description here



The integral appears to not converge. However, it is known that
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n x) , mathrm{d}x = 2pi delta(n)$$



where $delta(x)$ is the Dirac delta function. Is it possible for the first integral to be expressed similarly using Dirac delta notation?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm hoping to determine the value of the following integral:
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n cosh{x}) , mathrm{d}x$$



Here is a plot of the integrand as a function of $x$ with parameter $n$ varying from 0 to 10.



enter image description here



The integral appears to not converge. However, it is known that
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}exp(mathrm{i} n x) , mathrm{d}x = 2pi delta(n)$$



where $delta(x)$ is the Dirac delta function. Is it possible for the first integral to be expressed similarly using Dirac delta notation?







integration definite-integrals dirac-delta






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 14 '18 at 16:43









SprocketsAreNotGearsSprocketsAreNotGears

1736




1736








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This integral is related to the Hankel function for which an integral representation is $${H^{(1)}_{nu}}left(zright)=frac{e^{-frac{1}{2}nupi i}}{pi i}int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{izcosh t-nu t}mathrm{d}t$$ Here, $nu=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    @PaulEnta, then for real $z$ the integral doesn't exist in the usual sense, does it? Or is the function analytically continued somehow?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @YuriyS The principal branch of the function has a branch cut along the negative reals. See here for example.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The representation $$Y_{0}left(xright)=-frac{2}{pi}int_{0}^{infty}cosleft(xcosh tright), mathrm{d}t$$ from here may be also helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:18














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This integral is related to the Hankel function for which an integral representation is $${H^{(1)}_{nu}}left(zright)=frac{e^{-frac{1}{2}nupi i}}{pi i}int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{izcosh t-nu t}mathrm{d}t$$ Here, $nu=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    @PaulEnta, then for real $z$ the integral doesn't exist in the usual sense, does it? Or is the function analytically continued somehow?
    $endgroup$
    – Yuriy S
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @YuriyS The principal branch of the function has a branch cut along the negative reals. See here for example.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Enta
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The representation $$Y_{0}left(xright)=-frac{2}{pi}int_{0}^{infty}cosleft(xcosh tright), mathrm{d}t$$ from here may be also helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Dec 14 '18 at 17:18








1




1




$begingroup$
This integral is related to the Hankel function for which an integral representation is $${H^{(1)}_{nu}}left(zright)=frac{e^{-frac{1}{2}nupi i}}{pi i}int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{izcosh t-nu t}mathrm{d}t$$ Here, $nu=0$.
$endgroup$
– Paul Enta
Dec 14 '18 at 17:09






$begingroup$
This integral is related to the Hankel function for which an integral representation is $${H^{(1)}_{nu}}left(zright)=frac{e^{-frac{1}{2}nupi i}}{pi i}int_{-infty}^{infty}e^{izcosh t-nu t}mathrm{d}t$$ Here, $nu=0$.
$endgroup$
– Paul Enta
Dec 14 '18 at 17:09














$begingroup$
@PaulEnta, then for real $z$ the integral doesn't exist in the usual sense, does it? Or is the function analytically continued somehow?
$endgroup$
– Yuriy S
Dec 14 '18 at 17:10




$begingroup$
@PaulEnta, then for real $z$ the integral doesn't exist in the usual sense, does it? Or is the function analytically continued somehow?
$endgroup$
– Yuriy S
Dec 14 '18 at 17:10












$begingroup$
@YuriyS The principal branch of the function has a branch cut along the negative reals. See here for example.
$endgroup$
– Paul Enta
Dec 14 '18 at 17:15






$begingroup$
@YuriyS The principal branch of the function has a branch cut along the negative reals. See here for example.
$endgroup$
– Paul Enta
Dec 14 '18 at 17:15






2




2




$begingroup$
The representation $$Y_{0}left(xright)=-frac{2}{pi}int_{0}^{infty}cosleft(xcosh tright), mathrm{d}t$$ from here may be also helpful.
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Dec 14 '18 at 17:18




$begingroup$
The representation $$Y_{0}left(xright)=-frac{2}{pi}int_{0}^{infty}cosleft(xcosh tright), mathrm{d}t$$ from here may be also helpful.
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Dec 14 '18 at 17:18










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