Is the following stopping time finite: $T:=inf{tgeq 0:B_tgeq sqrt{t}+1}?$












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$begingroup$


We have a Brownian motion process $B$ and a stopping time defined like this:
$$T:=inf{tgeq 0:B_tgeq sqrt{t}+1}.$$



Is this stopping time almost surely finite, eg. $T<infty$, and why?



My intuition would say it is.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is your intuition?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That we know the $limsup_{tto infty}frac{B_t}{sqrt{t}}=infty$ a.s. And that means that the BM has to go over $sqrt{t}$ at some point.
    $endgroup$
    – Ravonrip
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:56








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you know that, then isn't that a proof? How do you know that limsup is $infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 13 '18 at 0:05


















0












$begingroup$


We have a Brownian motion process $B$ and a stopping time defined like this:
$$T:=inf{tgeq 0:B_tgeq sqrt{t}+1}.$$



Is this stopping time almost surely finite, eg. $T<infty$, and why?



My intuition would say it is.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is your intuition?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That we know the $limsup_{tto infty}frac{B_t}{sqrt{t}}=infty$ a.s. And that means that the BM has to go over $sqrt{t}$ at some point.
    $endgroup$
    – Ravonrip
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:56








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you know that, then isn't that a proof? How do you know that limsup is $infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 13 '18 at 0:05
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


We have a Brownian motion process $B$ and a stopping time defined like this:
$$T:=inf{tgeq 0:B_tgeq sqrt{t}+1}.$$



Is this stopping time almost surely finite, eg. $T<infty$, and why?



My intuition would say it is.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




We have a Brownian motion process $B$ and a stopping time defined like this:
$$T:=inf{tgeq 0:B_tgeq sqrt{t}+1}.$$



Is this stopping time almost surely finite, eg. $T<infty$, and why?



My intuition would say it is.







brownian-motion stopping-times






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 12 '18 at 23:50









zoidberg

1,080113




1,080113










asked Dec 12 '18 at 23:47









RavonripRavonrip

898




898












  • $begingroup$
    What is your intuition?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That we know the $limsup_{tto infty}frac{B_t}{sqrt{t}}=infty$ a.s. And that means that the BM has to go over $sqrt{t}$ at some point.
    $endgroup$
    – Ravonrip
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:56








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you know that, then isn't that a proof? How do you know that limsup is $infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 13 '18 at 0:05




















  • $begingroup$
    What is your intuition?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That we know the $limsup_{tto infty}frac{B_t}{sqrt{t}}=infty$ a.s. And that means that the BM has to go over $sqrt{t}$ at some point.
    $endgroup$
    – Ravonrip
    Dec 12 '18 at 23:56








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you know that, then isn't that a proof? How do you know that limsup is $infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 13 '18 at 0:05


















$begingroup$
What is your intuition?
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 12 '18 at 23:51




$begingroup$
What is your intuition?
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 12 '18 at 23:51




1




1




$begingroup$
That we know the $limsup_{tto infty}frac{B_t}{sqrt{t}}=infty$ a.s. And that means that the BM has to go over $sqrt{t}$ at some point.
$endgroup$
– Ravonrip
Dec 12 '18 at 23:56






$begingroup$
That we know the $limsup_{tto infty}frac{B_t}{sqrt{t}}=infty$ a.s. And that means that the BM has to go over $sqrt{t}$ at some point.
$endgroup$
– Ravonrip
Dec 12 '18 at 23:56






1




1




$begingroup$
If you know that, then isn't that a proof? How do you know that limsup is $infty$?
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 13 '18 at 0:05






$begingroup$
If you know that, then isn't that a proof? How do you know that limsup is $infty$?
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 13 '18 at 0:05












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