We know an example iff any exist












1












$begingroup$


Consider a statement of this form:




We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].




Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?



(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 21 '18 at 23:26










  • $begingroup$
    @RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 22 '18 at 2:53










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 22 '18 at 18:23












  • $begingroup$
    I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Christensen
    Dec 23 '18 at 15:50












  • $begingroup$
    @DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 25 '18 at 0:55


















1












$begingroup$


Consider a statement of this form:




We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].




Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?



(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 21 '18 at 23:26










  • $begingroup$
    @RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 22 '18 at 2:53










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 22 '18 at 18:23












  • $begingroup$
    I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Christensen
    Dec 23 '18 at 15:50












  • $begingroup$
    @DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 25 '18 at 0:55
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


Consider a statement of this form:




We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].




Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?



(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Consider a statement of this form:




We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].




Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?



(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)







logic examples-counterexamples predicate-logic quantifiers






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 20 '18 at 17:20









Joseph SibleJoseph Sible

1495




1495












  • $begingroup$
    Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 21 '18 at 23:26










  • $begingroup$
    @RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 22 '18 at 2:53










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 22 '18 at 18:23












  • $begingroup$
    I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Christensen
    Dec 23 '18 at 15:50












  • $begingroup$
    @DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 25 '18 at 0:55




















  • $begingroup$
    Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 21 '18 at 23:26










  • $begingroup$
    @RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 22 '18 at 2:53










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 22 '18 at 18:23












  • $begingroup$
    I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Christensen
    Dec 23 '18 at 15:50












  • $begingroup$
    @DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Sible
    Dec 25 '18 at 0:55


















$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26




$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26












$begingroup$
@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53




$begingroup$
@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53












$begingroup$
Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23






$begingroup$
Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23














$begingroup$
I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50






$begingroup$
I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50














$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55






$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55












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