A Question on the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle in Probability Theory












0












$begingroup$


Let $n geq 3$ be a fixed integer and consider an arbitrary set of the events ${A_i, 1 leq i leq n }$ in the same probability space. Consider the following two sums of probabilities:
begin{align}
S_1 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i leq n} mathbb{P}(A_i); \
S_2 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i_1 < i_2 leq n} mathbb{P}(A_{i_1} cap A_{i_2}).
end{align}

The question is whether it holds that $S_1 ^{(n)} geq S_2 ^{(n)}$ and $2 S_1 ^{(n)} geq 3 S_2 ^{(n)}$?



Both inequalities hold for $n = 3$. But I could not have a proof based on induction according to this base case. Anyone has a idea? Thanks very much.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neither inequality can hold in general as the case when all the events $A_i$ are equal, shows.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 10:38










  • $begingroup$
    @Did Thanks a lot. In case that the events are not identical nor disjoint, which would be of more interest, do the inequalities hold in general?
    $endgroup$
    – Richie
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:13










  • $begingroup$
    The case of identical events serves to show that some specific condition must be added. Of course nonequal events shall also disprove the conjecture: assume for example that $P(A_i)=a$ and $P(A_icap A_j)=b$ for every $i$ and $j$ and consider the limit when $ntoinfty$. Once again, these trivial cases only help to show the inequality cannot hold in general. (Not sure I understand your mention of disjointness since disjoint events automatically fit the conjecture because then $S^{(n)}_2=0$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 12:13
















0












$begingroup$


Let $n geq 3$ be a fixed integer and consider an arbitrary set of the events ${A_i, 1 leq i leq n }$ in the same probability space. Consider the following two sums of probabilities:
begin{align}
S_1 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i leq n} mathbb{P}(A_i); \
S_2 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i_1 < i_2 leq n} mathbb{P}(A_{i_1} cap A_{i_2}).
end{align}

The question is whether it holds that $S_1 ^{(n)} geq S_2 ^{(n)}$ and $2 S_1 ^{(n)} geq 3 S_2 ^{(n)}$?



Both inequalities hold for $n = 3$. But I could not have a proof based on induction according to this base case. Anyone has a idea? Thanks very much.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neither inequality can hold in general as the case when all the events $A_i$ are equal, shows.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 10:38










  • $begingroup$
    @Did Thanks a lot. In case that the events are not identical nor disjoint, which would be of more interest, do the inequalities hold in general?
    $endgroup$
    – Richie
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:13










  • $begingroup$
    The case of identical events serves to show that some specific condition must be added. Of course nonequal events shall also disprove the conjecture: assume for example that $P(A_i)=a$ and $P(A_icap A_j)=b$ for every $i$ and $j$ and consider the limit when $ntoinfty$. Once again, these trivial cases only help to show the inequality cannot hold in general. (Not sure I understand your mention of disjointness since disjoint events automatically fit the conjecture because then $S^{(n)}_2=0$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 12:13














0












0








0


0



$begingroup$


Let $n geq 3$ be a fixed integer and consider an arbitrary set of the events ${A_i, 1 leq i leq n }$ in the same probability space. Consider the following two sums of probabilities:
begin{align}
S_1 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i leq n} mathbb{P}(A_i); \
S_2 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i_1 < i_2 leq n} mathbb{P}(A_{i_1} cap A_{i_2}).
end{align}

The question is whether it holds that $S_1 ^{(n)} geq S_2 ^{(n)}$ and $2 S_1 ^{(n)} geq 3 S_2 ^{(n)}$?



Both inequalities hold for $n = 3$. But I could not have a proof based on induction according to this base case. Anyone has a idea? Thanks very much.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $n geq 3$ be a fixed integer and consider an arbitrary set of the events ${A_i, 1 leq i leq n }$ in the same probability space. Consider the following two sums of probabilities:
begin{align}
S_1 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i leq n} mathbb{P}(A_i); \
S_2 ^{(n)} &= sum_{1 leq i_1 < i_2 leq n} mathbb{P}(A_{i_1} cap A_{i_2}).
end{align}

The question is whether it holds that $S_1 ^{(n)} geq S_2 ^{(n)}$ and $2 S_1 ^{(n)} geq 3 S_2 ^{(n)}$?



Both inequalities hold for $n = 3$. But I could not have a proof based on induction according to this base case. Anyone has a idea? Thanks very much.







probability probability-theory inclusion-exclusion






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 25 '18 at 11:49









N. F. Taussig

45.1k103358




45.1k103358










asked Dec 25 '18 at 10:29









RichieRichie

394210




394210








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neither inequality can hold in general as the case when all the events $A_i$ are equal, shows.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 10:38










  • $begingroup$
    @Did Thanks a lot. In case that the events are not identical nor disjoint, which would be of more interest, do the inequalities hold in general?
    $endgroup$
    – Richie
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:13










  • $begingroup$
    The case of identical events serves to show that some specific condition must be added. Of course nonequal events shall also disprove the conjecture: assume for example that $P(A_i)=a$ and $P(A_icap A_j)=b$ for every $i$ and $j$ and consider the limit when $ntoinfty$. Once again, these trivial cases only help to show the inequality cannot hold in general. (Not sure I understand your mention of disjointness since disjoint events automatically fit the conjecture because then $S^{(n)}_2=0$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 12:13














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Neither inequality can hold in general as the case when all the events $A_i$ are equal, shows.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 10:38










  • $begingroup$
    @Did Thanks a lot. In case that the events are not identical nor disjoint, which would be of more interest, do the inequalities hold in general?
    $endgroup$
    – Richie
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:13










  • $begingroup$
    The case of identical events serves to show that some specific condition must be added. Of course nonequal events shall also disprove the conjecture: assume for example that $P(A_i)=a$ and $P(A_icap A_j)=b$ for every $i$ and $j$ and consider the limit when $ntoinfty$. Once again, these trivial cases only help to show the inequality cannot hold in general. (Not sure I understand your mention of disjointness since disjoint events automatically fit the conjecture because then $S^{(n)}_2=0$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 25 '18 at 12:13








1




1




$begingroup$
Neither inequality can hold in general as the case when all the events $A_i$ are equal, shows.
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 25 '18 at 10:38




$begingroup$
Neither inequality can hold in general as the case when all the events $A_i$ are equal, shows.
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 25 '18 at 10:38












$begingroup$
@Did Thanks a lot. In case that the events are not identical nor disjoint, which would be of more interest, do the inequalities hold in general?
$endgroup$
– Richie
Dec 25 '18 at 11:13




$begingroup$
@Did Thanks a lot. In case that the events are not identical nor disjoint, which would be of more interest, do the inequalities hold in general?
$endgroup$
– Richie
Dec 25 '18 at 11:13












$begingroup$
The case of identical events serves to show that some specific condition must be added. Of course nonequal events shall also disprove the conjecture: assume for example that $P(A_i)=a$ and $P(A_icap A_j)=b$ for every $i$ and $j$ and consider the limit when $ntoinfty$. Once again, these trivial cases only help to show the inequality cannot hold in general. (Not sure I understand your mention of disjointness since disjoint events automatically fit the conjecture because then $S^{(n)}_2=0$.)
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 25 '18 at 12:13




$begingroup$
The case of identical events serves to show that some specific condition must be added. Of course nonequal events shall also disprove the conjecture: assume for example that $P(A_i)=a$ and $P(A_icap A_j)=b$ for every $i$ and $j$ and consider the limit when $ntoinfty$. Once again, these trivial cases only help to show the inequality cannot hold in general. (Not sure I understand your mention of disjointness since disjoint events automatically fit the conjecture because then $S^{(n)}_2=0$.)
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 25 '18 at 12:13










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