How to prove that continuous convex functional on normed vector space must be lower bounded by some...












2












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Let $X$ be a normed vector space. Let $f:Xmapsto mathbb{R}$ be a continuous convex function. How to show that there exists a continuous linear functional $l$ and a constant $cinmathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)>l(x)+c$ holds for all $xin X$? I think it could be proved by hyperplane separation theorem. But I don't know how to start it.










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    $begingroup$
    The comments at this similar question math.stackexchange.com/q/2734823/42969 may be helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Dec 31 '18 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. But it's not.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 1 at 1:44
















2












$begingroup$


Let $X$ be a normed vector space. Let $f:Xmapsto mathbb{R}$ be a continuous convex function. How to show that there exists a continuous linear functional $l$ and a constant $cinmathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)>l(x)+c$ holds for all $xin X$? I think it could be proved by hyperplane separation theorem. But I don't know how to start it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The comments at this similar question math.stackexchange.com/q/2734823/42969 may be helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Dec 31 '18 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. But it's not.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 1 at 1:44














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


Let $X$ be a normed vector space. Let $f:Xmapsto mathbb{R}$ be a continuous convex function. How to show that there exists a continuous linear functional $l$ and a constant $cinmathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)>l(x)+c$ holds for all $xin X$? I think it could be proved by hyperplane separation theorem. But I don't know how to start it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $X$ be a normed vector space. Let $f:Xmapsto mathbb{R}$ be a continuous convex function. How to show that there exists a continuous linear functional $l$ and a constant $cinmathbb{R}$ such that $f(x)>l(x)+c$ holds for all $xin X$? I think it could be proved by hyperplane separation theorem. But I don't know how to start it.







functional-analysis convex-analysis normed-spaces convex-geometry hahn-banach-theorem






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edited Jan 1 at 13:45







Lin Xuelei

















asked Dec 31 '18 at 16:21









Lin XueleiLin Xuelei

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16011








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The comments at this similar question math.stackexchange.com/q/2734823/42969 may be helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Dec 31 '18 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. But it's not.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 1 at 1:44














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The comments at this similar question math.stackexchange.com/q/2734823/42969 may be helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Dec 31 '18 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. But it's not.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 1 at 1:44








2




2




$begingroup$
The comments at this similar question math.stackexchange.com/q/2734823/42969 may be helpful.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 31 '18 at 16:30




$begingroup$
The comments at this similar question math.stackexchange.com/q/2734823/42969 may be helpful.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 31 '18 at 16:30












$begingroup$
Thanks. But it's not.
$endgroup$
– Lin Xuelei
Jan 1 at 1:44




$begingroup$
Thanks. But it's not.
$endgroup$
– Lin Xuelei
Jan 1 at 1:44










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

The epigraph $operatorname{epi}f$ is closed and convex set in $XtimesBbb R$ and $(x,f(x)-epsilon)notinoperatorname{epi}f$ is compact for any $epsilon>0$ and $xin X$. By the separation theorem there exists a non-zero $(phi,psi)in(XtimesBbb R)'=X'timesBbb R$ such that the hyperplane $(phi,psi)cdot(x,y)=phi(x)+psi y=alpha$ separates $operatorname{epi}f$ and the point. We can choose the sign such that $operatorname{epi}f$ belongs to the half-space $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Clearly $psine 0$ since $phi(x)>alpha$ is not possible for all $xin X$ and $phine 0$. Hence, $psi>0$ otherwise $yto+infty$ (still in $operatorname{epi}f$) will give us a contradiction with $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Finally $(x,f(x))inoperatorname{epi}f$ then $phi(x)+psi f(x)>alpha$. Divide by $psi$ and move the things around.






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  • $begingroup$
    thanks. I never thought dual of product space has such a precise form.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 2 at 10:17












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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

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1












$begingroup$

The epigraph $operatorname{epi}f$ is closed and convex set in $XtimesBbb R$ and $(x,f(x)-epsilon)notinoperatorname{epi}f$ is compact for any $epsilon>0$ and $xin X$. By the separation theorem there exists a non-zero $(phi,psi)in(XtimesBbb R)'=X'timesBbb R$ such that the hyperplane $(phi,psi)cdot(x,y)=phi(x)+psi y=alpha$ separates $operatorname{epi}f$ and the point. We can choose the sign such that $operatorname{epi}f$ belongs to the half-space $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Clearly $psine 0$ since $phi(x)>alpha$ is not possible for all $xin X$ and $phine 0$. Hence, $psi>0$ otherwise $yto+infty$ (still in $operatorname{epi}f$) will give us a contradiction with $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Finally $(x,f(x))inoperatorname{epi}f$ then $phi(x)+psi f(x)>alpha$. Divide by $psi$ and move the things around.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thanks. I never thought dual of product space has such a precise form.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 2 at 10:17
















1












$begingroup$

The epigraph $operatorname{epi}f$ is closed and convex set in $XtimesBbb R$ and $(x,f(x)-epsilon)notinoperatorname{epi}f$ is compact for any $epsilon>0$ and $xin X$. By the separation theorem there exists a non-zero $(phi,psi)in(XtimesBbb R)'=X'timesBbb R$ such that the hyperplane $(phi,psi)cdot(x,y)=phi(x)+psi y=alpha$ separates $operatorname{epi}f$ and the point. We can choose the sign such that $operatorname{epi}f$ belongs to the half-space $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Clearly $psine 0$ since $phi(x)>alpha$ is not possible for all $xin X$ and $phine 0$. Hence, $psi>0$ otherwise $yto+infty$ (still in $operatorname{epi}f$) will give us a contradiction with $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Finally $(x,f(x))inoperatorname{epi}f$ then $phi(x)+psi f(x)>alpha$. Divide by $psi$ and move the things around.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thanks. I never thought dual of product space has such a precise form.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 2 at 10:17














1












1








1





$begingroup$

The epigraph $operatorname{epi}f$ is closed and convex set in $XtimesBbb R$ and $(x,f(x)-epsilon)notinoperatorname{epi}f$ is compact for any $epsilon>0$ and $xin X$. By the separation theorem there exists a non-zero $(phi,psi)in(XtimesBbb R)'=X'timesBbb R$ such that the hyperplane $(phi,psi)cdot(x,y)=phi(x)+psi y=alpha$ separates $operatorname{epi}f$ and the point. We can choose the sign such that $operatorname{epi}f$ belongs to the half-space $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Clearly $psine 0$ since $phi(x)>alpha$ is not possible for all $xin X$ and $phine 0$. Hence, $psi>0$ otherwise $yto+infty$ (still in $operatorname{epi}f$) will give us a contradiction with $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Finally $(x,f(x))inoperatorname{epi}f$ then $phi(x)+psi f(x)>alpha$. Divide by $psi$ and move the things around.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



The epigraph $operatorname{epi}f$ is closed and convex set in $XtimesBbb R$ and $(x,f(x)-epsilon)notinoperatorname{epi}f$ is compact for any $epsilon>0$ and $xin X$. By the separation theorem there exists a non-zero $(phi,psi)in(XtimesBbb R)'=X'timesBbb R$ such that the hyperplane $(phi,psi)cdot(x,y)=phi(x)+psi y=alpha$ separates $operatorname{epi}f$ and the point. We can choose the sign such that $operatorname{epi}f$ belongs to the half-space $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Clearly $psine 0$ since $phi(x)>alpha$ is not possible for all $xin X$ and $phine 0$. Hence, $psi>0$ otherwise $yto+infty$ (still in $operatorname{epi}f$) will give us a contradiction with $phi(x)+psi y>alpha$. Finally $(x,f(x))inoperatorname{epi}f$ then $phi(x)+psi f(x)>alpha$. Divide by $psi$ and move the things around.







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share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 1 at 20:32









A.Γ.A.Γ.

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  • $begingroup$
    thanks. I never thought dual of product space has such a precise form.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 2 at 10:17


















  • $begingroup$
    thanks. I never thought dual of product space has such a precise form.
    $endgroup$
    – Lin Xuelei
    Jan 2 at 10:17
















$begingroup$
thanks. I never thought dual of product space has such a precise form.
$endgroup$
– Lin Xuelei
Jan 2 at 10:17




$begingroup$
thanks. I never thought dual of product space has such a precise form.
$endgroup$
– Lin Xuelei
Jan 2 at 10:17


















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