Showing that $f$ is a uniformly continuous function on the interval $[0, infty)$
$begingroup$
Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)
Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:
$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$
And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?
Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:
$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$
real-analysis proof-explanation uniform-continuity
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)
Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:
$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$
And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?
Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:
$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$
real-analysis proof-explanation uniform-continuity
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37
1
$begingroup$
The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42
1
$begingroup$
However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)
Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:
$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$
And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?
Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:
$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$
real-analysis proof-explanation uniform-continuity
$endgroup$
Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)
Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:
$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$
And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?
Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:
$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$
real-analysis proof-explanation uniform-continuity
real-analysis proof-explanation uniform-continuity
asked Dec 23 '18 at 22:57
dc3rddc3rd
1,51911240
1,51911240
$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37
1
$begingroup$
The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42
1
$begingroup$
However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37
1
$begingroup$
The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42
1
$begingroup$
However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13
$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37
$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37
1
1
$begingroup$
The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42
$begingroup$
The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42
1
1
$begingroup$
However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13
$begingroup$
However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
$$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 24 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity
of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need
differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly
continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets
are automatically uniformly continuous.
Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert <
frac{varepsilon}{2} $$ for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence,
if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert
f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) -
f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} =
varepsilon$$ since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
$$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 24 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
$$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 24 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
$$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.
$endgroup$
Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
$$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.
edited Dec 24 '18 at 1:14
answered Dec 23 '18 at 23:46
Guacho PerezGuacho Perez
3,93411134
3,93411134
$begingroup$
This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 24 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 24 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
$begingroup$
This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 24 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 24 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
$begingroup$
However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity
of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need
differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly
continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets
are automatically uniformly continuous.
Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert <
frac{varepsilon}{2} $$ for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence,
if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert
f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) -
f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} =
varepsilon$$ since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity
of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need
differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly
continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets
are automatically uniformly continuous.
Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert <
frac{varepsilon}{2} $$ for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence,
if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert
f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) -
f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} =
varepsilon$$ since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity
of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need
differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly
continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets
are automatically uniformly continuous.
Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert <
frac{varepsilon}{2} $$ for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence,
if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert
f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) -
f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} =
varepsilon$$ since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.
$endgroup$
The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity
of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need
differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly
continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets
are automatically uniformly continuous.
Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert <
frac{varepsilon}{2} $$ for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence,
if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert
f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) -
f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} =
varepsilon$$ since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.
edited Dec 24 '18 at 22:07
answered Dec 24 '18 at 16:13
YoungMathYoungMath
197111
197111
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37
1
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The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
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– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42
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However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
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– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13