Showing that $f$ is a uniformly continuous function on the interval $[0, infty)$












2












$begingroup$


Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)



Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:



$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$



And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?



Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:



$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
    $endgroup$
    – dc3rd
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:42






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
    $endgroup$
    – YoungMath
    Dec 24 '18 at 0:13
















2












$begingroup$


Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)



Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:



$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$



And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?



Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:



$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
    $endgroup$
    – dc3rd
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:42






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
    $endgroup$
    – YoungMath
    Dec 24 '18 at 0:13














2












2








2


0



$begingroup$


Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)



Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:



$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$



And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?



Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:



$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Suppose that $f$: $[0, infty) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $[0, infty)$ and differentiable on $(1, infty)$ with bounded derivative. Show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. (HINT: split $[0, infty)$ into two pieces, on each of which $f$ is uniformly continuous, then explain why this implies that $f$ is uniformly continuous on the whole $[0, infty)$.)



Question: I have solved the majority of the problem, but wanted a little clarification with regards to the explanation in the second part. Specifically there is the situation where:



$ x in [0, 1)$ and $y > 1$ (or vice versa). In this scenario I still have to show $|x - y| < delta$. Given the conditions that I have can I do the following: $$|x - y| leq |x - 1| + |y - 1| < frac{delta}{2} + frac{delta}{2} = delta$$



And if this is allowed is the reason that I should choose $1$ because the two intervals split at that specific point so it allows me to relate $x,y$ to each other?



Assuming the previous step is true then it follows:



$$ |f(x) - f(y)| leq |f(x) - f(1) + |f(1) - f(y)| < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon$$







real-analysis proof-explanation uniform-continuity






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asked Dec 23 '18 at 22:57









dc3rddc3rd

1,51911240




1,51911240












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
    $endgroup$
    – dc3rd
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:42






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
    $endgroup$
    – YoungMath
    Dec 24 '18 at 0:13


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
    $endgroup$
    – dc3rd
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 23 '18 at 23:42






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
    $endgroup$
    – YoungMath
    Dec 24 '18 at 0:13
















$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37




$begingroup$
Yes. I do ....I picked [0,1] and $(1,infty)$ for that reason
$endgroup$
– dc3rd
Dec 23 '18 at 23:37




1




1




$begingroup$
The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42




$begingroup$
The implication was that you can have the intervals overlap and not have to worry about the $x$ and the $y$ being in separate ``domains''; that is, instead of $[0,2]cup[2,infty)$, you could take $[0,2]cup[3/2,infty)$. Now simply enforce $|x-y|<frac12$ and both $x,y$ will be in the same domain.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 23 '18 at 23:42




1




1




$begingroup$
However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13




$begingroup$
However, the $delta$ you are looking for is the minimum of both $delta$s for each domain, where $varepsilon /2$ is given.
$endgroup$
– YoungMath
Dec 24 '18 at 0:13










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
$$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – dc3rd
    Dec 24 '18 at 20:12










  • $begingroup$
    However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
    $endgroup$
    – YoungMath
    Dec 24 '18 at 21:11



















1












$begingroup$

The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity 
of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need 
differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly 
continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets 
are automatically uniformly continuous. 



Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert < 
frac{varepsilon}{2} $$
for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence, 
if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert 
f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) - 
f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} = 
varepsilon$$
since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    2 Answers
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    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
    $$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
    Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
      $endgroup$
      – dc3rd
      Dec 24 '18 at 20:12










    • $begingroup$
      However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
      $endgroup$
      – YoungMath
      Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
















    1












    $begingroup$

    Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
    $$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
    Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
      $endgroup$
      – dc3rd
      Dec 24 '18 at 20:12










    • $begingroup$
      However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
      $endgroup$
      – YoungMath
      Dec 24 '18 at 21:11














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
    $$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
    Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Use MVT to show $|f(x)-f(y)|le M|x-y|$ on $(1,infty)$. Since $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$, for any $epsilon>0$ there exists $delta>0$ so that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ when $|x-y|<delta$ and $x,yin[0,1]$. If $xle 1le y$, because $f$ is continuous at $1$, there is $eta$ so that if $|x-y|<eta$ implies $|x-1|,|y-1|<eta$ and
    $$|f(x)-f(y)|le |f(x)-f(1)|+|f(1)-f(y)|<epsilon $$
    Now if $|x-y|<min{epsilon/M,delta,eta}$, we get $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Dec 24 '18 at 1:14

























    answered Dec 23 '18 at 23:46









    Guacho PerezGuacho Perez

    3,93411134




    3,93411134












    • $begingroup$
      This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
      $endgroup$
      – dc3rd
      Dec 24 '18 at 20:12










    • $begingroup$
      However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
      $endgroup$
      – YoungMath
      Dec 24 '18 at 21:11


















    • $begingroup$
      This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
      $endgroup$
      – dc3rd
      Dec 24 '18 at 20:12










    • $begingroup$
      However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
      $endgroup$
      – YoungMath
      Dec 24 '18 at 21:11
















    $begingroup$
    This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – dc3rd
    Dec 24 '18 at 20:12




    $begingroup$
    This provides more clarity to my situation. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – dc3rd
    Dec 24 '18 at 20:12












    $begingroup$
    However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
    $endgroup$
    – YoungMath
    Dec 24 '18 at 21:11




    $begingroup$
    However, it has to be $frac{varepsilon} {2 M}$ to satisfy the desired inequlity. Apart from that it's perfectly fine and almost the same, though a little bit more complicated imao.
    $endgroup$
    – YoungMath
    Dec 24 '18 at 21:11











    1












    $begingroup$

    The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity 
    of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need 
    differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly 
    continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets 
    are automatically uniformly continuous. 



    Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
    there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert < 
    frac{varepsilon}{2} $$
    for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence, 
    if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert 
    f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) - 
    f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} = 
    varepsilon$$
    since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
    for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity 
      of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need 
      differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly 
      continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets 
      are automatically uniformly continuous. 



      Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
      there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert < 
      frac{varepsilon}{2} $$
      for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence, 
      if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert 
      f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) - 
      f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} = 
      varepsilon$$
      since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
      for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity 
        of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need 
        differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly 
        continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets 
        are automatically uniformly continuous. 



        Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
        there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert < 
        frac{varepsilon}{2} $$
        for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence, 
        if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert 
        f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) - 
        f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} = 
        varepsilon$$
        since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
        for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The mean value theorem gives Lipschitz and therefore uniform continuity 
        of $f$ in $[1,infty)$ including $1$. That is because you need 
        differentiablity only in the interior. Moreover, $f$ is uniformly 
        continuous in $[0,1]$ since every continuous function on compact sets 
        are automatically uniformly continuous. 



        Now, let be $varepsilon > 0$. Then,
        there exist $delta_{1/2}$ such that $$ lvert f(x_i) - f(1) rvert < 
        frac{varepsilon}{2} $$
        for $lvert x_i - 1 rvert < delta_i$ where $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. Of course, $delta_i$ does not depend on $1$ nor $x_i$ due to the uniform continuity; this is important. Hence, 
        if we choose $delta = min{ delta_1,delta_2 }$, we obtain $$ lvert 
        f(x_1) - f(x_2) rvert leq lvert f(x_1) - f(1) rvert + lvert f(1) - 
        f(x_2) rvert < frac{varepsilon}{2} + frac{varepsilon}{2} = 
        varepsilon$$
        since $$lvert x_i - 1 rvert leq lvert x_1 - x_2 rvert < delta leq delta_i$$
        for $0 leq x_1 leq 1 leq x_2$. For arbitrary $x_1,x_2$ both entirely in either $[0,1]$ or $[1,infty)$, we can use the same $delta$ due to the choices of each $delta_i$, which proves the statement.







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        edited Dec 24 '18 at 22:07

























        answered Dec 24 '18 at 16:13









        YoungMathYoungMath

        197111




        197111






























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