Open sets and intersections











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Suppose $G$ is an open subset of the real number that is not upper bounded. Is there a real number $x > 0$ such that the set of all integer multiples of $x$ intersects $G$ at infinitely many points?



That is, is it true that $exists x in mathbb{R}$ such that ${mxmid min mathbb{Z}}bigcap G$ is infinite?



My intuition tells me yes, since the fact that $G$ is not upper bounded seems to be a major factor here, but I can’t seem to prove it.










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  • Is $G$ a subset of $mathbb R$?
    – 5xum
    15 hours ago










  • Could you explain more?
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago










  • Yes, I made an edit to the question I asked. It should be slightly clearer now.
    – IUissopretty
    15 hours ago










  • i think its, $G subset mathbb{R}$ does $exists~ (x in mathbb{R}) > 0 ~s.t~ A = {ax | a in mathbb{Z}}$ with $A cap G$ being infinitely large.
    – Vaas
    15 hours ago










  • What is your proof
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago















up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2












Suppose $G$ is an open subset of the real number that is not upper bounded. Is there a real number $x > 0$ such that the set of all integer multiples of $x$ intersects $G$ at infinitely many points?



That is, is it true that $exists x in mathbb{R}$ such that ${mxmid min mathbb{Z}}bigcap G$ is infinite?



My intuition tells me yes, since the fact that $G$ is not upper bounded seems to be a major factor here, but I can’t seem to prove it.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Is $G$ a subset of $mathbb R$?
    – 5xum
    15 hours ago










  • Could you explain more?
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago










  • Yes, I made an edit to the question I asked. It should be slightly clearer now.
    – IUissopretty
    15 hours ago










  • i think its, $G subset mathbb{R}$ does $exists~ (x in mathbb{R}) > 0 ~s.t~ A = {ax | a in mathbb{Z}}$ with $A cap G$ being infinitely large.
    – Vaas
    15 hours ago










  • What is your proof
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago













up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2






2





Suppose $G$ is an open subset of the real number that is not upper bounded. Is there a real number $x > 0$ such that the set of all integer multiples of $x$ intersects $G$ at infinitely many points?



That is, is it true that $exists x in mathbb{R}$ such that ${mxmid min mathbb{Z}}bigcap G$ is infinite?



My intuition tells me yes, since the fact that $G$ is not upper bounded seems to be a major factor here, but I can’t seem to prove it.










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose $G$ is an open subset of the real number that is not upper bounded. Is there a real number $x > 0$ such that the set of all integer multiples of $x$ intersects $G$ at infinitely many points?



That is, is it true that $exists x in mathbb{R}$ such that ${mxmid min mathbb{Z}}bigcap G$ is infinite?



My intuition tells me yes, since the fact that $G$ is not upper bounded seems to be a major factor here, but I can’t seem to prove it.







real-analysis






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 14 hours ago









AdditIdent

39319




39319










asked 15 hours ago









IUissopretty

354




354












  • Is $G$ a subset of $mathbb R$?
    – 5xum
    15 hours ago










  • Could you explain more?
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago










  • Yes, I made an edit to the question I asked. It should be slightly clearer now.
    – IUissopretty
    15 hours ago










  • i think its, $G subset mathbb{R}$ does $exists~ (x in mathbb{R}) > 0 ~s.t~ A = {ax | a in mathbb{Z}}$ with $A cap G$ being infinitely large.
    – Vaas
    15 hours ago










  • What is your proof
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago


















  • Is $G$ a subset of $mathbb R$?
    – 5xum
    15 hours ago










  • Could you explain more?
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago










  • Yes, I made an edit to the question I asked. It should be slightly clearer now.
    – IUissopretty
    15 hours ago










  • i think its, $G subset mathbb{R}$ does $exists~ (x in mathbb{R}) > 0 ~s.t~ A = {ax | a in mathbb{Z}}$ with $A cap G$ being infinitely large.
    – Vaas
    15 hours ago










  • What is your proof
    – Dadrahm
    15 hours ago
















Is $G$ a subset of $mathbb R$?
– 5xum
15 hours ago




Is $G$ a subset of $mathbb R$?
– 5xum
15 hours ago












Could you explain more?
– Dadrahm
15 hours ago




Could you explain more?
– Dadrahm
15 hours ago












Yes, I made an edit to the question I asked. It should be slightly clearer now.
– IUissopretty
15 hours ago




Yes, I made an edit to the question I asked. It should be slightly clearer now.
– IUissopretty
15 hours ago












i think its, $G subset mathbb{R}$ does $exists~ (x in mathbb{R}) > 0 ~s.t~ A = {ax | a in mathbb{Z}}$ with $A cap G$ being infinitely large.
– Vaas
15 hours ago




i think its, $G subset mathbb{R}$ does $exists~ (x in mathbb{R}) > 0 ~s.t~ A = {ax | a in mathbb{Z}}$ with $A cap G$ being infinitely large.
– Vaas
15 hours ago












What is your proof
– Dadrahm
15 hours ago




What is your proof
– Dadrahm
15 hours ago










1 Answer
1






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up vote
0
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Yes. Suppose $nexists x$ such that ${nx:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is infinite, then for any $epsilon>0$, ${nepsilon:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is finite.



Let $n_0 = max {n inmathbb{Z}:nepsilon in G}$.



Take $ain G$ such that $a > n_0epsilon$. $[because G$ is unbounded above$]$.



Let $S = {x in G: (a,x) subset G}.$ $Sne phi$ as $G$ is open.



Let $b=sup S$.



So $(a, b) subset G$. Then $|b-a|<epsilon$ also implies $b=a$. We have arrived at a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.


















  • Would you mind to suggest how does $|b-a|<epsilon$ imply $b=a$?
    – AdditIdent
    10 hours ago












  • As $epsilon$ is arbitrarily small.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago










  • As you choose $n_0$ you implicitly fix an $epsilon$ already, thus your $a$ and things else too depends on $epsilon$.
    – AdditIdent
    9 hours ago












  • I understood the problem with $epsilon$. There is a glitch in the proof. I'll try to mend it.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago











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1 Answer
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up vote
0
down vote













Yes. Suppose $nexists x$ such that ${nx:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is infinite, then for any $epsilon>0$, ${nepsilon:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is finite.



Let $n_0 = max {n inmathbb{Z}:nepsilon in G}$.



Take $ain G$ such that $a > n_0epsilon$. $[because G$ is unbounded above$]$.



Let $S = {x in G: (a,x) subset G}.$ $Sne phi$ as $G$ is open.



Let $b=sup S$.



So $(a, b) subset G$. Then $|b-a|<epsilon$ also implies $b=a$. We have arrived at a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.


















  • Would you mind to suggest how does $|b-a|<epsilon$ imply $b=a$?
    – AdditIdent
    10 hours ago












  • As $epsilon$ is arbitrarily small.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago










  • As you choose $n_0$ you implicitly fix an $epsilon$ already, thus your $a$ and things else too depends on $epsilon$.
    – AdditIdent
    9 hours ago












  • I understood the problem with $epsilon$. There is a glitch in the proof. I'll try to mend it.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago















up vote
0
down vote













Yes. Suppose $nexists x$ such that ${nx:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is infinite, then for any $epsilon>0$, ${nepsilon:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is finite.



Let $n_0 = max {n inmathbb{Z}:nepsilon in G}$.



Take $ain G$ such that $a > n_0epsilon$. $[because G$ is unbounded above$]$.



Let $S = {x in G: (a,x) subset G}.$ $Sne phi$ as $G$ is open.



Let $b=sup S$.



So $(a, b) subset G$. Then $|b-a|<epsilon$ also implies $b=a$. We have arrived at a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.


















  • Would you mind to suggest how does $|b-a|<epsilon$ imply $b=a$?
    – AdditIdent
    10 hours ago












  • As $epsilon$ is arbitrarily small.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago










  • As you choose $n_0$ you implicitly fix an $epsilon$ already, thus your $a$ and things else too depends on $epsilon$.
    – AdditIdent
    9 hours ago












  • I understood the problem with $epsilon$. There is a glitch in the proof. I'll try to mend it.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Yes. Suppose $nexists x$ such that ${nx:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is infinite, then for any $epsilon>0$, ${nepsilon:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is finite.



Let $n_0 = max {n inmathbb{Z}:nepsilon in G}$.



Take $ain G$ such that $a > n_0epsilon$. $[because G$ is unbounded above$]$.



Let $S = {x in G: (a,x) subset G}.$ $Sne phi$ as $G$ is open.



Let $b=sup S$.



So $(a, b) subset G$. Then $|b-a|<epsilon$ also implies $b=a$. We have arrived at a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









Yes. Suppose $nexists x$ such that ${nx:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is infinite, then for any $epsilon>0$, ${nepsilon:ninmathbb{Z}}cap G$ is finite.



Let $n_0 = max {n inmathbb{Z}:nepsilon in G}$.



Take $ain G$ such that $a > n_0epsilon$. $[because G$ is unbounded above$]$.



Let $S = {x in G: (a,x) subset G}.$ $Sne phi$ as $G$ is open.



Let $b=sup S$.



So $(a, b) subset G$. Then $|b-a|<epsilon$ also implies $b=a$. We have arrived at a contradiction.







share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 9 hours ago





















New contributor




Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









answered 13 hours ago









Offlaw

114




114




New contributor




Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Offlaw is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • Would you mind to suggest how does $|b-a|<epsilon$ imply $b=a$?
    – AdditIdent
    10 hours ago












  • As $epsilon$ is arbitrarily small.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago










  • As you choose $n_0$ you implicitly fix an $epsilon$ already, thus your $a$ and things else too depends on $epsilon$.
    – AdditIdent
    9 hours ago












  • I understood the problem with $epsilon$. There is a glitch in the proof. I'll try to mend it.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago


















  • Would you mind to suggest how does $|b-a|<epsilon$ imply $b=a$?
    – AdditIdent
    10 hours ago












  • As $epsilon$ is arbitrarily small.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago










  • As you choose $n_0$ you implicitly fix an $epsilon$ already, thus your $a$ and things else too depends on $epsilon$.
    – AdditIdent
    9 hours ago












  • I understood the problem with $epsilon$. There is a glitch in the proof. I'll try to mend it.
    – Offlaw
    9 hours ago
















Would you mind to suggest how does $|b-a|<epsilon$ imply $b=a$?
– AdditIdent
10 hours ago






Would you mind to suggest how does $|b-a|<epsilon$ imply $b=a$?
– AdditIdent
10 hours ago














As $epsilon$ is arbitrarily small.
– Offlaw
9 hours ago




As $epsilon$ is arbitrarily small.
– Offlaw
9 hours ago












As you choose $n_0$ you implicitly fix an $epsilon$ already, thus your $a$ and things else too depends on $epsilon$.
– AdditIdent
9 hours ago






As you choose $n_0$ you implicitly fix an $epsilon$ already, thus your $a$ and things else too depends on $epsilon$.
– AdditIdent
9 hours ago














I understood the problem with $epsilon$. There is a glitch in the proof. I'll try to mend it.
– Offlaw
9 hours ago




I understood the problem with $epsilon$. There is a glitch in the proof. I'll try to mend it.
– Offlaw
9 hours ago


















 

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