I'm trying to prove P→(Q∧R) from the following premises: (P→Q)∧R, (P∧R)→S, ¬S [on hold]











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I made a truth table and found that the conclusion is valid. But, I need help constructing a formal proof.










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put on hold as off-topic by Leucippus, Key Flex, José Carlos Santos, Shailesh, Tom-Tom 2 days ago


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    I made a truth table and found that the conclusion is valid. But, I need help constructing a formal proof.










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    put on hold as off-topic by Leucippus, Key Flex, José Carlos Santos, Shailesh, Tom-Tom 2 days ago


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Leucippus, Key Flex, José Carlos Santos, Shailesh, Tom-Tom

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.















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      I made a truth table and found that the conclusion is valid. But, I need help constructing a formal proof.










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      I made a truth table and found that the conclusion is valid. But, I need help constructing a formal proof.







      discrete-mathematics natural-deduction






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      asked Nov 16 at 5:24









      Orlando Piedrahita

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      put on hold as off-topic by Leucippus, Key Flex, José Carlos Santos, Shailesh, Tom-Tom 2 days ago


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Leucippus, Key Flex, José Carlos Santos, Shailesh, Tom-Tom

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




      put on hold as off-topic by Leucippus, Key Flex, José Carlos Santos, Shailesh, Tom-Tom 2 days ago


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Leucippus, Key Flex, José Carlos Santos, Shailesh, Tom-Tom

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
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          From your question, I assume you are trying to prove:
          $$((P implies Q) land R) land (P land R implies S) land lnot S) implies (P implies (Q land R))$$



          Whenever you want to prove an implication you assume the first part.



          Now assume P.
          Now you are given $$(P land R) implies S$$
          You have P because you assumed and you have R because of your givens. Now you S. But you also have lnot S. This gives you a $bot$. From a contraction you can assume anything. The rest is minor details.






          share|cite|improve this answer








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          • Doesn't $((Pimplies Q)land R)$ by itself imply $(Pimplies(Qland R))$?
            – bof
            Nov 16 at 6:13










          • Ah yes, I do believe that is better way of doing the problem! because if you know $P$ conclude $$Q$$ and it must follow $$Q land R$$
            – Fefnir Wilhelm
            2 days ago




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          0
          down vote













          From your question, I assume you are trying to prove:
          $$((P implies Q) land R) land (P land R implies S) land lnot S) implies (P implies (Q land R))$$



          Whenever you want to prove an implication you assume the first part.



          Now assume P.
          Now you are given $$(P land R) implies S$$
          You have P because you assumed and you have R because of your givens. Now you S. But you also have lnot S. This gives you a $bot$. From a contraction you can assume anything. The rest is minor details.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.


















          • Doesn't $((Pimplies Q)land R)$ by itself imply $(Pimplies(Qland R))$?
            – bof
            Nov 16 at 6:13










          • Ah yes, I do believe that is better way of doing the problem! because if you know $P$ conclude $$Q$$ and it must follow $$Q land R$$
            – Fefnir Wilhelm
            2 days ago

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          From your question, I assume you are trying to prove:
          $$((P implies Q) land R) land (P land R implies S) land lnot S) implies (P implies (Q land R))$$



          Whenever you want to prove an implication you assume the first part.



          Now assume P.
          Now you are given $$(P land R) implies S$$
          You have P because you assumed and you have R because of your givens. Now you S. But you also have lnot S. This gives you a $bot$. From a contraction you can assume anything. The rest is minor details.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.


















          • Doesn't $((Pimplies Q)land R)$ by itself imply $(Pimplies(Qland R))$?
            – bof
            Nov 16 at 6:13










          • Ah yes, I do believe that is better way of doing the problem! because if you know $P$ conclude $$Q$$ and it must follow $$Q land R$$
            – Fefnir Wilhelm
            2 days ago















          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          From your question, I assume you are trying to prove:
          $$((P implies Q) land R) land (P land R implies S) land lnot S) implies (P implies (Q land R))$$



          Whenever you want to prove an implication you assume the first part.



          Now assume P.
          Now you are given $$(P land R) implies S$$
          You have P because you assumed and you have R because of your givens. Now you S. But you also have lnot S. This gives you a $bot$. From a contraction you can assume anything. The rest is minor details.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          From your question, I assume you are trying to prove:
          $$((P implies Q) land R) land (P land R implies S) land lnot S) implies (P implies (Q land R))$$



          Whenever you want to prove an implication you assume the first part.



          Now assume P.
          Now you are given $$(P land R) implies S$$
          You have P because you assumed and you have R because of your givens. Now you S. But you also have lnot S. This gives you a $bot$. From a contraction you can assume anything. The rest is minor details.







          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer






          New contributor




          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          answered Nov 16 at 6:07









          Fefnir Wilhelm

          62




          62




          New contributor




          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.





          New contributor





          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          Fefnir Wilhelm is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.












          • Doesn't $((Pimplies Q)land R)$ by itself imply $(Pimplies(Qland R))$?
            – bof
            Nov 16 at 6:13










          • Ah yes, I do believe that is better way of doing the problem! because if you know $P$ conclude $$Q$$ and it must follow $$Q land R$$
            – Fefnir Wilhelm
            2 days ago




















          • Doesn't $((Pimplies Q)land R)$ by itself imply $(Pimplies(Qland R))$?
            – bof
            Nov 16 at 6:13










          • Ah yes, I do believe that is better way of doing the problem! because if you know $P$ conclude $$Q$$ and it must follow $$Q land R$$
            – Fefnir Wilhelm
            2 days ago


















          Doesn't $((Pimplies Q)land R)$ by itself imply $(Pimplies(Qland R))$?
          – bof
          Nov 16 at 6:13




          Doesn't $((Pimplies Q)land R)$ by itself imply $(Pimplies(Qland R))$?
          – bof
          Nov 16 at 6:13












          Ah yes, I do believe that is better way of doing the problem! because if you know $P$ conclude $$Q$$ and it must follow $$Q land R$$
          – Fefnir Wilhelm
          2 days ago






          Ah yes, I do believe that is better way of doing the problem! because if you know $P$ conclude $$Q$$ and it must follow $$Q land R$$
          – Fefnir Wilhelm
          2 days ago





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