Random graph with $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ a.a.s has no subgraph with $k$ vertices with at least $k+1$ edges












3












$begingroup$



Let $G=(n,p)$ with $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon >0$. Then
for each $kin mathbb{N}$ there are a.a.s no $k$ vertices with at
least $k+1$ edges.




Proof:
We want to show $$Pr(exists Ssubseteq V: |S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1) to 0quad (nto infty).$$



Let $Ssubseteq V$ with $|S|=k$. Then there are ${k}choose{2}$$=frac{k(k-1)}{2}$ possible subsets with 2 elements. Lets call them $A_i$,
Define the random varibles $1_{A_i}$ such that
$$1_{A_i}=1 text{ when } A_i subset{E_S},quad 0 text{ else}$$



We have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k+1}$$



Then $Esum_i 1_{A_i}=frac{k(k-1)}{2}Pr(1_{A_i}=1)=frac{k(k-1)}{2}p$ since the probability of the edges is independent.



Now we have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k-1}<frac{k}{2}p ll frac{k}{2} frac{1}{nn^{-epsilon}}$$



Now pick: $n^{epsilon}=k$.
is this correct? does the result follow?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    all I read was "pick $n^epsilon = k$". this confuses me. what exactly are you picking? I don't think you are allowed to pick anything. $epsilon$ and $k$ are given, and you want to show a result for arbitrarily large $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    but it holds for all $epsilon>0$. So we can pick epsilon so that $n^{epsilon}=k$ since $n$ can be very large and $epsilon$ small enough.
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:20










  • $begingroup$
    You can't pick $varepsilon.$ It is given to you.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:50










  • $begingroup$
    so what do i do at the end?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:57
















3












$begingroup$



Let $G=(n,p)$ with $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon >0$. Then
for each $kin mathbb{N}$ there are a.a.s no $k$ vertices with at
least $k+1$ edges.




Proof:
We want to show $$Pr(exists Ssubseteq V: |S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1) to 0quad (nto infty).$$



Let $Ssubseteq V$ with $|S|=k$. Then there are ${k}choose{2}$$=frac{k(k-1)}{2}$ possible subsets with 2 elements. Lets call them $A_i$,
Define the random varibles $1_{A_i}$ such that
$$1_{A_i}=1 text{ when } A_i subset{E_S},quad 0 text{ else}$$



We have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k+1}$$



Then $Esum_i 1_{A_i}=frac{k(k-1)}{2}Pr(1_{A_i}=1)=frac{k(k-1)}{2}p$ since the probability of the edges is independent.



Now we have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k-1}<frac{k}{2}p ll frac{k}{2} frac{1}{nn^{-epsilon}}$$



Now pick: $n^{epsilon}=k$.
is this correct? does the result follow?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    all I read was "pick $n^epsilon = k$". this confuses me. what exactly are you picking? I don't think you are allowed to pick anything. $epsilon$ and $k$ are given, and you want to show a result for arbitrarily large $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    but it holds for all $epsilon>0$. So we can pick epsilon so that $n^{epsilon}=k$ since $n$ can be very large and $epsilon$ small enough.
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:20










  • $begingroup$
    You can't pick $varepsilon.$ It is given to you.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:50










  • $begingroup$
    so what do i do at the end?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:57














3












3








3


1



$begingroup$



Let $G=(n,p)$ with $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon >0$. Then
for each $kin mathbb{N}$ there are a.a.s no $k$ vertices with at
least $k+1$ edges.




Proof:
We want to show $$Pr(exists Ssubseteq V: |S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1) to 0quad (nto infty).$$



Let $Ssubseteq V$ with $|S|=k$. Then there are ${k}choose{2}$$=frac{k(k-1)}{2}$ possible subsets with 2 elements. Lets call them $A_i$,
Define the random varibles $1_{A_i}$ such that
$$1_{A_i}=1 text{ when } A_i subset{E_S},quad 0 text{ else}$$



We have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k+1}$$



Then $Esum_i 1_{A_i}=frac{k(k-1)}{2}Pr(1_{A_i}=1)=frac{k(k-1)}{2}p$ since the probability of the edges is independent.



Now we have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k-1}<frac{k}{2}p ll frac{k}{2} frac{1}{nn^{-epsilon}}$$



Now pick: $n^{epsilon}=k$.
is this correct? does the result follow?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let $G=(n,p)$ with $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon >0$. Then
for each $kin mathbb{N}$ there are a.a.s no $k$ vertices with at
least $k+1$ edges.




Proof:
We want to show $$Pr(exists Ssubseteq V: |S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1) to 0quad (nto infty).$$



Let $Ssubseteq V$ with $|S|=k$. Then there are ${k}choose{2}$$=frac{k(k-1)}{2}$ possible subsets with 2 elements. Lets call them $A_i$,
Define the random varibles $1_{A_i}$ such that
$$1_{A_i}=1 text{ when } A_i subset{E_S},quad 0 text{ else}$$



We have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k+1}$$



Then $Esum_i 1_{A_i}=frac{k(k-1)}{2}Pr(1_{A_i}=1)=frac{k(k-1)}{2}p$ since the probability of the edges is independent.



Now we have
$$Pr(|S|=k, |E_S|geq k+1)=Pr(sum_i 1_{A_i} geq k+1)leq frac{Esum_i 1_{A_i}}{k-1}<frac{k}{2}p ll frac{k}{2} frac{1}{nn^{-epsilon}}$$



Now pick: $n^{epsilon}=k$.
is this correct? does the result follow?







probability combinatorics graph-theory random-graphs






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 5 '18 at 22:28







orange

















asked Dec 5 '18 at 16:09









orangeorange

636215




636215








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    all I read was "pick $n^epsilon = k$". this confuses me. what exactly are you picking? I don't think you are allowed to pick anything. $epsilon$ and $k$ are given, and you want to show a result for arbitrarily large $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    but it holds for all $epsilon>0$. So we can pick epsilon so that $n^{epsilon}=k$ since $n$ can be very large and $epsilon$ small enough.
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:20










  • $begingroup$
    You can't pick $varepsilon.$ It is given to you.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:50










  • $begingroup$
    so what do i do at the end?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:57














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    all I read was "pick $n^epsilon = k$". this confuses me. what exactly are you picking? I don't think you are allowed to pick anything. $epsilon$ and $k$ are given, and you want to show a result for arbitrarily large $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    but it holds for all $epsilon>0$. So we can pick epsilon so that $n^{epsilon}=k$ since $n$ can be very large and $epsilon$ small enough.
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 16:20










  • $begingroup$
    You can't pick $varepsilon.$ It is given to you.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:50










  • $begingroup$
    so what do i do at the end?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    Dec 5 '18 at 19:57








1




1




$begingroup$
all I read was "pick $n^epsilon = k$". this confuses me. what exactly are you picking? I don't think you are allowed to pick anything. $epsilon$ and $k$ are given, and you want to show a result for arbitrarily large $n$.
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Dec 5 '18 at 16:18




$begingroup$
all I read was "pick $n^epsilon = k$". this confuses me. what exactly are you picking? I don't think you are allowed to pick anything. $epsilon$ and $k$ are given, and you want to show a result for arbitrarily large $n$.
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Dec 5 '18 at 16:18












$begingroup$
but it holds for all $epsilon>0$. So we can pick epsilon so that $n^{epsilon}=k$ since $n$ can be very large and $epsilon$ small enough.
$endgroup$
– orange
Dec 5 '18 at 16:20




$begingroup$
but it holds for all $epsilon>0$. So we can pick epsilon so that $n^{epsilon}=k$ since $n$ can be very large and $epsilon$ small enough.
$endgroup$
– orange
Dec 5 '18 at 16:20












$begingroup$
You can't pick $varepsilon.$ It is given to you.
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 5 '18 at 19:50




$begingroup$
You can't pick $varepsilon.$ It is given to you.
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 5 '18 at 19:50












$begingroup$
so what do i do at the end?
$endgroup$
– orange
Dec 5 '18 at 19:57




$begingroup$
so what do i do at the end?
$endgroup$
– orange
Dec 5 '18 at 19:57










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

The approach you have taken is not strong enough to get the desired conclusion.



The use of $1_{A_i}$ is a bit strange, but everything you've done can be phrased in terms of the random variable $|E_S|$ (for a fixed $S$). You are applying Markov's inequality to $|E_S|$, saying that
$$
Pr[|E_S| ge k+1] le frac{mathbb E[|E_S|]}{k+1}.
$$

By linearity of expectation, $mathbb E[|E_S|] = binom k2 p$. It is not quite correct that $binom k2 = frac{k(k+1)}{2}$; rather, $binom k2 = frac{k(k-1)}{2}$. But this is not important, since we still have $frac{binom k2 p}{k+1} < frac {kp}{2} ll frac{k}{n^{1-epsilon}}$.



Here, $k = |S| le n$, and this inequality is potentially strong enough to prove that for any given $S$, we have $|E_S| le |S|$ with high probability. But that's not what we want: we want a result that holds for all $S$.



Consider $k=4$, for example: then there are $binom n4$ sets $S$ we could consider, and if the probability is $ll frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ for each one, that only tells us that the expected number of sets $S$ with $5$ edges is $ll binom n4 frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ or in other words it is $ll n^{3+epsilon}$, which still could be very large.





We can improve on Markov's inequality for bounding the probability that a set $S$ induces a subgraph we don't like.



First of all: for any $k$, there is only a constant number of $k$-vertex graphs with $k+1$ edges. So if we show that for a fixed graph $H$ (on $k$ vertices and with $k+1$ edges) the random graph doesn't have an $H$-subgraph a.a.s., then we immediately conclude that the random graph doesn't have any such subgraphs with $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges a.a.s. (Since the subgraphs are not necessarily induced, this also rules out subgraphs with $k$ vertices and more than $k+1$ edges.)



As an upper bound, the expected number of labeled $H$-subgraphs in $mathcal G_{n,p}$ is less than $n^{|V(H)|}p^{|E(H)|}$. (The power of $n$ is actually at most $n(n-1)(n-2)dotsb$ with $|V(H)|$ factors.) If $H$ has $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges, this is $n^k p^{k+1}$.



We have $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon>0$, so in particular, $p ll n^{-1 + frac{1}{k+1}}$. Therefore $p^{k+1} ll n^{-k}$, and $n^k p^{k+1} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Therefore $mathcal G_{n,p}$ has no copies of $H$ a.a.s., and by doing this for every $k$-vertex graph with $k+1$ edges we get the statement you want.





A subtle point here is that we are proving the statement "for each $k$, a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges" not "a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges for each $k$". That is, $k$ is a constant fixed outside the limit as $n to infty$.



If we didn't do this, then the statement would not be true, because $mathcal G_{n,p}$ for $p gg frac1n$ does contain large subgraphs with more edges than vertices (in particular, the whole graph is such a subgraph).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wait a second though. If $p=n^{-1+epsilon}$ then a graph drawn according to $G(n,p)$ will have ${n choose 2}p approx n^{1+epsilon} >> n$ edges. Then there would indeed be a $k$-vertex subgraph with more than $k+1$ edges, for some $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mike See my reply to your answer :)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Gotcha @MishaLavrov looking at it now :)
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MishaLavrov I see it now, if $k$ is fixed and $epsilon < 1/k$ then $k^2{n choose k}n^{(k+1)(-1+epsilon)}$ goes to 0 as $n$ goes to infinity. Thanks I will delete my answer
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:48






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Mike I've edited my answer to address this point, because reading the question is tricky and this fine detail of wording matters. (If you look at the edit history of my answer, its first draft originally made the same mistake!)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:58











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

The approach you have taken is not strong enough to get the desired conclusion.



The use of $1_{A_i}$ is a bit strange, but everything you've done can be phrased in terms of the random variable $|E_S|$ (for a fixed $S$). You are applying Markov's inequality to $|E_S|$, saying that
$$
Pr[|E_S| ge k+1] le frac{mathbb E[|E_S|]}{k+1}.
$$

By linearity of expectation, $mathbb E[|E_S|] = binom k2 p$. It is not quite correct that $binom k2 = frac{k(k+1)}{2}$; rather, $binom k2 = frac{k(k-1)}{2}$. But this is not important, since we still have $frac{binom k2 p}{k+1} < frac {kp}{2} ll frac{k}{n^{1-epsilon}}$.



Here, $k = |S| le n$, and this inequality is potentially strong enough to prove that for any given $S$, we have $|E_S| le |S|$ with high probability. But that's not what we want: we want a result that holds for all $S$.



Consider $k=4$, for example: then there are $binom n4$ sets $S$ we could consider, and if the probability is $ll frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ for each one, that only tells us that the expected number of sets $S$ with $5$ edges is $ll binom n4 frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ or in other words it is $ll n^{3+epsilon}$, which still could be very large.





We can improve on Markov's inequality for bounding the probability that a set $S$ induces a subgraph we don't like.



First of all: for any $k$, there is only a constant number of $k$-vertex graphs with $k+1$ edges. So if we show that for a fixed graph $H$ (on $k$ vertices and with $k+1$ edges) the random graph doesn't have an $H$-subgraph a.a.s., then we immediately conclude that the random graph doesn't have any such subgraphs with $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges a.a.s. (Since the subgraphs are not necessarily induced, this also rules out subgraphs with $k$ vertices and more than $k+1$ edges.)



As an upper bound, the expected number of labeled $H$-subgraphs in $mathcal G_{n,p}$ is less than $n^{|V(H)|}p^{|E(H)|}$. (The power of $n$ is actually at most $n(n-1)(n-2)dotsb$ with $|V(H)|$ factors.) If $H$ has $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges, this is $n^k p^{k+1}$.



We have $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon>0$, so in particular, $p ll n^{-1 + frac{1}{k+1}}$. Therefore $p^{k+1} ll n^{-k}$, and $n^k p^{k+1} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Therefore $mathcal G_{n,p}$ has no copies of $H$ a.a.s., and by doing this for every $k$-vertex graph with $k+1$ edges we get the statement you want.





A subtle point here is that we are proving the statement "for each $k$, a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges" not "a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges for each $k$". That is, $k$ is a constant fixed outside the limit as $n to infty$.



If we didn't do this, then the statement would not be true, because $mathcal G_{n,p}$ for $p gg frac1n$ does contain large subgraphs with more edges than vertices (in particular, the whole graph is such a subgraph).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wait a second though. If $p=n^{-1+epsilon}$ then a graph drawn according to $G(n,p)$ will have ${n choose 2}p approx n^{1+epsilon} >> n$ edges. Then there would indeed be a $k$-vertex subgraph with more than $k+1$ edges, for some $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mike See my reply to your answer :)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Gotcha @MishaLavrov looking at it now :)
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MishaLavrov I see it now, if $k$ is fixed and $epsilon < 1/k$ then $k^2{n choose k}n^{(k+1)(-1+epsilon)}$ goes to 0 as $n$ goes to infinity. Thanks I will delete my answer
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:48






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Mike I've edited my answer to address this point, because reading the question is tricky and this fine detail of wording matters. (If you look at the edit history of my answer, its first draft originally made the same mistake!)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:58
















2












$begingroup$

The approach you have taken is not strong enough to get the desired conclusion.



The use of $1_{A_i}$ is a bit strange, but everything you've done can be phrased in terms of the random variable $|E_S|$ (for a fixed $S$). You are applying Markov's inequality to $|E_S|$, saying that
$$
Pr[|E_S| ge k+1] le frac{mathbb E[|E_S|]}{k+1}.
$$

By linearity of expectation, $mathbb E[|E_S|] = binom k2 p$. It is not quite correct that $binom k2 = frac{k(k+1)}{2}$; rather, $binom k2 = frac{k(k-1)}{2}$. But this is not important, since we still have $frac{binom k2 p}{k+1} < frac {kp}{2} ll frac{k}{n^{1-epsilon}}$.



Here, $k = |S| le n$, and this inequality is potentially strong enough to prove that for any given $S$, we have $|E_S| le |S|$ with high probability. But that's not what we want: we want a result that holds for all $S$.



Consider $k=4$, for example: then there are $binom n4$ sets $S$ we could consider, and if the probability is $ll frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ for each one, that only tells us that the expected number of sets $S$ with $5$ edges is $ll binom n4 frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ or in other words it is $ll n^{3+epsilon}$, which still could be very large.





We can improve on Markov's inequality for bounding the probability that a set $S$ induces a subgraph we don't like.



First of all: for any $k$, there is only a constant number of $k$-vertex graphs with $k+1$ edges. So if we show that for a fixed graph $H$ (on $k$ vertices and with $k+1$ edges) the random graph doesn't have an $H$-subgraph a.a.s., then we immediately conclude that the random graph doesn't have any such subgraphs with $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges a.a.s. (Since the subgraphs are not necessarily induced, this also rules out subgraphs with $k$ vertices and more than $k+1$ edges.)



As an upper bound, the expected number of labeled $H$-subgraphs in $mathcal G_{n,p}$ is less than $n^{|V(H)|}p^{|E(H)|}$. (The power of $n$ is actually at most $n(n-1)(n-2)dotsb$ with $|V(H)|$ factors.) If $H$ has $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges, this is $n^k p^{k+1}$.



We have $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon>0$, so in particular, $p ll n^{-1 + frac{1}{k+1}}$. Therefore $p^{k+1} ll n^{-k}$, and $n^k p^{k+1} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Therefore $mathcal G_{n,p}$ has no copies of $H$ a.a.s., and by doing this for every $k$-vertex graph with $k+1$ edges we get the statement you want.





A subtle point here is that we are proving the statement "for each $k$, a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges" not "a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges for each $k$". That is, $k$ is a constant fixed outside the limit as $n to infty$.



If we didn't do this, then the statement would not be true, because $mathcal G_{n,p}$ for $p gg frac1n$ does contain large subgraphs with more edges than vertices (in particular, the whole graph is such a subgraph).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wait a second though. If $p=n^{-1+epsilon}$ then a graph drawn according to $G(n,p)$ will have ${n choose 2}p approx n^{1+epsilon} >> n$ edges. Then there would indeed be a $k$-vertex subgraph with more than $k+1$ edges, for some $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mike See my reply to your answer :)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Gotcha @MishaLavrov looking at it now :)
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MishaLavrov I see it now, if $k$ is fixed and $epsilon < 1/k$ then $k^2{n choose k}n^{(k+1)(-1+epsilon)}$ goes to 0 as $n$ goes to infinity. Thanks I will delete my answer
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:48






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Mike I've edited my answer to address this point, because reading the question is tricky and this fine detail of wording matters. (If you look at the edit history of my answer, its first draft originally made the same mistake!)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:58














2












2








2





$begingroup$

The approach you have taken is not strong enough to get the desired conclusion.



The use of $1_{A_i}$ is a bit strange, but everything you've done can be phrased in terms of the random variable $|E_S|$ (for a fixed $S$). You are applying Markov's inequality to $|E_S|$, saying that
$$
Pr[|E_S| ge k+1] le frac{mathbb E[|E_S|]}{k+1}.
$$

By linearity of expectation, $mathbb E[|E_S|] = binom k2 p$. It is not quite correct that $binom k2 = frac{k(k+1)}{2}$; rather, $binom k2 = frac{k(k-1)}{2}$. But this is not important, since we still have $frac{binom k2 p}{k+1} < frac {kp}{2} ll frac{k}{n^{1-epsilon}}$.



Here, $k = |S| le n$, and this inequality is potentially strong enough to prove that for any given $S$, we have $|E_S| le |S|$ with high probability. But that's not what we want: we want a result that holds for all $S$.



Consider $k=4$, for example: then there are $binom n4$ sets $S$ we could consider, and if the probability is $ll frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ for each one, that only tells us that the expected number of sets $S$ with $5$ edges is $ll binom n4 frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ or in other words it is $ll n^{3+epsilon}$, which still could be very large.





We can improve on Markov's inequality for bounding the probability that a set $S$ induces a subgraph we don't like.



First of all: for any $k$, there is only a constant number of $k$-vertex graphs with $k+1$ edges. So if we show that for a fixed graph $H$ (on $k$ vertices and with $k+1$ edges) the random graph doesn't have an $H$-subgraph a.a.s., then we immediately conclude that the random graph doesn't have any such subgraphs with $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges a.a.s. (Since the subgraphs are not necessarily induced, this also rules out subgraphs with $k$ vertices and more than $k+1$ edges.)



As an upper bound, the expected number of labeled $H$-subgraphs in $mathcal G_{n,p}$ is less than $n^{|V(H)|}p^{|E(H)|}$. (The power of $n$ is actually at most $n(n-1)(n-2)dotsb$ with $|V(H)|$ factors.) If $H$ has $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges, this is $n^k p^{k+1}$.



We have $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon>0$, so in particular, $p ll n^{-1 + frac{1}{k+1}}$. Therefore $p^{k+1} ll n^{-k}$, and $n^k p^{k+1} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Therefore $mathcal G_{n,p}$ has no copies of $H$ a.a.s., and by doing this for every $k$-vertex graph with $k+1$ edges we get the statement you want.





A subtle point here is that we are proving the statement "for each $k$, a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges" not "a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges for each $k$". That is, $k$ is a constant fixed outside the limit as $n to infty$.



If we didn't do this, then the statement would not be true, because $mathcal G_{n,p}$ for $p gg frac1n$ does contain large subgraphs with more edges than vertices (in particular, the whole graph is such a subgraph).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



The approach you have taken is not strong enough to get the desired conclusion.



The use of $1_{A_i}$ is a bit strange, but everything you've done can be phrased in terms of the random variable $|E_S|$ (for a fixed $S$). You are applying Markov's inequality to $|E_S|$, saying that
$$
Pr[|E_S| ge k+1] le frac{mathbb E[|E_S|]}{k+1}.
$$

By linearity of expectation, $mathbb E[|E_S|] = binom k2 p$. It is not quite correct that $binom k2 = frac{k(k+1)}{2}$; rather, $binom k2 = frac{k(k-1)}{2}$. But this is not important, since we still have $frac{binom k2 p}{k+1} < frac {kp}{2} ll frac{k}{n^{1-epsilon}}$.



Here, $k = |S| le n$, and this inequality is potentially strong enough to prove that for any given $S$, we have $|E_S| le |S|$ with high probability. But that's not what we want: we want a result that holds for all $S$.



Consider $k=4$, for example: then there are $binom n4$ sets $S$ we could consider, and if the probability is $ll frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ for each one, that only tells us that the expected number of sets $S$ with $5$ edges is $ll binom n4 frac{4}{n^{1-epsilon}}$ or in other words it is $ll n^{3+epsilon}$, which still could be very large.





We can improve on Markov's inequality for bounding the probability that a set $S$ induces a subgraph we don't like.



First of all: for any $k$, there is only a constant number of $k$-vertex graphs with $k+1$ edges. So if we show that for a fixed graph $H$ (on $k$ vertices and with $k+1$ edges) the random graph doesn't have an $H$-subgraph a.a.s., then we immediately conclude that the random graph doesn't have any such subgraphs with $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges a.a.s. (Since the subgraphs are not necessarily induced, this also rules out subgraphs with $k$ vertices and more than $k+1$ edges.)



As an upper bound, the expected number of labeled $H$-subgraphs in $mathcal G_{n,p}$ is less than $n^{|V(H)|}p^{|E(H)|}$. (The power of $n$ is actually at most $n(n-1)(n-2)dotsb$ with $|V(H)|$ factors.) If $H$ has $k$ vertices and $k+1$ edges, this is $n^k p^{k+1}$.



We have $p ll n^{-1+epsilon}$ for all $epsilon>0$, so in particular, $p ll n^{-1 + frac{1}{k+1}}$. Therefore $p^{k+1} ll n^{-k}$, and $n^k p^{k+1} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Therefore $mathcal G_{n,p}$ has no copies of $H$ a.a.s., and by doing this for every $k$-vertex graph with $k+1$ edges we get the statement you want.





A subtle point here is that we are proving the statement "for each $k$, a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges" not "a.a.s., $mathcal G_{n,p}$ contains no $k$-vertex subgraph with at least $k+1$ edges for each $k$". That is, $k$ is a constant fixed outside the limit as $n to infty$.



If we didn't do this, then the statement would not be true, because $mathcal G_{n,p}$ for $p gg frac1n$ does contain large subgraphs with more edges than vertices (in particular, the whole graph is such a subgraph).







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 15 '18 at 20:05

























answered Dec 5 '18 at 21:03









Misha LavrovMisha Lavrov

45.8k656107




45.8k656107








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wait a second though. If $p=n^{-1+epsilon}$ then a graph drawn according to $G(n,p)$ will have ${n choose 2}p approx n^{1+epsilon} >> n$ edges. Then there would indeed be a $k$-vertex subgraph with more than $k+1$ edges, for some $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mike See my reply to your answer :)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Gotcha @MishaLavrov looking at it now :)
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MishaLavrov I see it now, if $k$ is fixed and $epsilon < 1/k$ then $k^2{n choose k}n^{(k+1)(-1+epsilon)}$ goes to 0 as $n$ goes to infinity. Thanks I will delete my answer
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:48






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Mike I've edited my answer to address this point, because reading the question is tricky and this fine detail of wording matters. (If you look at the edit history of my answer, its first draft originally made the same mistake!)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:58














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wait a second though. If $p=n^{-1+epsilon}$ then a graph drawn according to $G(n,p)$ will have ${n choose 2}p approx n^{1+epsilon} >> n$ edges. Then there would indeed be a $k$-vertex subgraph with more than $k+1$ edges, for some $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mike See my reply to your answer :)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Gotcha @MishaLavrov looking at it now :)
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MishaLavrov I see it now, if $k$ is fixed and $epsilon < 1/k$ then $k^2{n choose k}n^{(k+1)(-1+epsilon)}$ goes to 0 as $n$ goes to infinity. Thanks I will delete my answer
    $endgroup$
    – Mike
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:48






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Mike I've edited my answer to address this point, because reading the question is tricky and this fine detail of wording matters. (If you look at the edit history of my answer, its first draft originally made the same mistake!)
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Dec 6 '18 at 18:58








1




1




$begingroup$
Wait a second though. If $p=n^{-1+epsilon}$ then a graph drawn according to $G(n,p)$ will have ${n choose 2}p approx n^{1+epsilon} >> n$ edges. Then there would indeed be a $k$-vertex subgraph with more than $k+1$ edges, for some $k$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Dec 6 '18 at 18:40




$begingroup$
Wait a second though. If $p=n^{-1+epsilon}$ then a graph drawn according to $G(n,p)$ will have ${n choose 2}p approx n^{1+epsilon} >> n$ edges. Then there would indeed be a $k$-vertex subgraph with more than $k+1$ edges, for some $k$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Dec 6 '18 at 18:40




1




1




$begingroup$
@Mike See my reply to your answer :)
$endgroup$
– Misha Lavrov
Dec 6 '18 at 18:41




$begingroup$
@Mike See my reply to your answer :)
$endgroup$
– Misha Lavrov
Dec 6 '18 at 18:41




1




1




$begingroup$
Gotcha @MishaLavrov looking at it now :)
$endgroup$
– Mike
Dec 6 '18 at 18:41




$begingroup$
Gotcha @MishaLavrov looking at it now :)
$endgroup$
– Mike
Dec 6 '18 at 18:41




1




1




$begingroup$
@MishaLavrov I see it now, if $k$ is fixed and $epsilon < 1/k$ then $k^2{n choose k}n^{(k+1)(-1+epsilon)}$ goes to 0 as $n$ goes to infinity. Thanks I will delete my answer
$endgroup$
– Mike
Dec 6 '18 at 18:48




$begingroup$
@MishaLavrov I see it now, if $k$ is fixed and $epsilon < 1/k$ then $k^2{n choose k}n^{(k+1)(-1+epsilon)}$ goes to 0 as $n$ goes to infinity. Thanks I will delete my answer
$endgroup$
– Mike
Dec 6 '18 at 18:48




2




2




$begingroup$
@Mike I've edited my answer to address this point, because reading the question is tricky and this fine detail of wording matters. (If you look at the edit history of my answer, its first draft originally made the same mistake!)
$endgroup$
– Misha Lavrov
Dec 6 '18 at 18:58




$begingroup$
@Mike I've edited my answer to address this point, because reading the question is tricky and this fine detail of wording matters. (If you look at the edit history of my answer, its first draft originally made the same mistake!)
$endgroup$
– Misha Lavrov
Dec 6 '18 at 18:58


















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