Elementary proof that the limit of $sum_{i=1}^{infty} frac{1}{operatorname{lcm}(1,2,…,i)}$ is irrational












26












$begingroup$


Show that the infinite sum $S$ defined by -$$S=sum_{i=1}^infty frac{1}{operatorname{lcm}(1,2,...,i)}$$ is an irrational number.



I found this question while reading 'Mathematical Gems' by Ross Honsberger. After pondering over it for nearly an hour, I was able to prove it by using Bertrand's postulate which states that there is a prime between n and 2n for every natural number n>1.



This question was solved by Lajos Pósa when he was just 12 years old. Is there any elementary proof that does not use Bertrand's postulate or any complicated theorem?










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  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In these days, Bertrand's postulate or Prime number theorem are not considered as complicated anymore. It is not surprising that 12 year old person knows them. But, certainly, any proof avoiding those will be interesting.
    $endgroup$
    – i707107
    Jan 31 '18 at 19:20










  • $begingroup$
    This seems relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul LeVan
    Jul 29 '18 at 18:31
















26












$begingroup$


Show that the infinite sum $S$ defined by -$$S=sum_{i=1}^infty frac{1}{operatorname{lcm}(1,2,...,i)}$$ is an irrational number.



I found this question while reading 'Mathematical Gems' by Ross Honsberger. After pondering over it for nearly an hour, I was able to prove it by using Bertrand's postulate which states that there is a prime between n and 2n for every natural number n>1.



This question was solved by Lajos Pósa when he was just 12 years old. Is there any elementary proof that does not use Bertrand's postulate or any complicated theorem?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In these days, Bertrand's postulate or Prime number theorem are not considered as complicated anymore. It is not surprising that 12 year old person knows them. But, certainly, any proof avoiding those will be interesting.
    $endgroup$
    – i707107
    Jan 31 '18 at 19:20










  • $begingroup$
    This seems relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul LeVan
    Jul 29 '18 at 18:31














26












26








26


20



$begingroup$


Show that the infinite sum $S$ defined by -$$S=sum_{i=1}^infty frac{1}{operatorname{lcm}(1,2,...,i)}$$ is an irrational number.



I found this question while reading 'Mathematical Gems' by Ross Honsberger. After pondering over it for nearly an hour, I was able to prove it by using Bertrand's postulate which states that there is a prime between n and 2n for every natural number n>1.



This question was solved by Lajos Pósa when he was just 12 years old. Is there any elementary proof that does not use Bertrand's postulate or any complicated theorem?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Show that the infinite sum $S$ defined by -$$S=sum_{i=1}^infty frac{1}{operatorname{lcm}(1,2,...,i)}$$ is an irrational number.



I found this question while reading 'Mathematical Gems' by Ross Honsberger. After pondering over it for nearly an hour, I was able to prove it by using Bertrand's postulate which states that there is a prime between n and 2n for every natural number n>1.



This question was solved by Lajos Pósa when he was just 12 years old. Is there any elementary proof that does not use Bertrand's postulate or any complicated theorem?







real-analysis sequences-and-series elementary-number-theory analytic-number-theory irrational-numbers






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edited Jan 31 '18 at 20:30









i707107

12.7k21748




12.7k21748










asked Jan 31 '18 at 18:13









TheBigOneTheBigOne

13115




13115








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In these days, Bertrand's postulate or Prime number theorem are not considered as complicated anymore. It is not surprising that 12 year old person knows them. But, certainly, any proof avoiding those will be interesting.
    $endgroup$
    – i707107
    Jan 31 '18 at 19:20










  • $begingroup$
    This seems relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul LeVan
    Jul 29 '18 at 18:31














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    In these days, Bertrand's postulate or Prime number theorem are not considered as complicated anymore. It is not surprising that 12 year old person knows them. But, certainly, any proof avoiding those will be interesting.
    $endgroup$
    – i707107
    Jan 31 '18 at 19:20










  • $begingroup$
    This seems relevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul LeVan
    Jul 29 '18 at 18:31








4




4




$begingroup$
In these days, Bertrand's postulate or Prime number theorem are not considered as complicated anymore. It is not surprising that 12 year old person knows them. But, certainly, any proof avoiding those will be interesting.
$endgroup$
– i707107
Jan 31 '18 at 19:20




$begingroup$
In these days, Bertrand's postulate or Prime number theorem are not considered as complicated anymore. It is not surprising that 12 year old person knows them. But, certainly, any proof avoiding those will be interesting.
$endgroup$
– i707107
Jan 31 '18 at 19:20












$begingroup$
This seems relevant.
$endgroup$
– Paul LeVan
Jul 29 '18 at 18:31




$begingroup$
This seems relevant.
$endgroup$
– Paul LeVan
Jul 29 '18 at 18:31










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

I am guessing that this is the exact same solution the OP (TheBigOne) got, but I am putting my answer here, so that the thread is answered. Even though this proof requires some non-elementary knowledge (Bertrand's Postulate), it is still a proof. (Although I disagree that Bertrand's Postulate is not elementary. The proof I know is quite elementary, and as i707107 said, Bertrand's Postulate is very widely known.) The solution also utilizes the fact that there are infinitely many prime natural numbers congruent to $2$ modulo $3$. (This fact has an elementary proof.)



First, let $L_k:=text{lcm}(1,2,ldots,k)$ for $k=1,2,3,ldots$. Note that $L_1=1$ and $L_kgeq k(k-1)$ for $kgeq 2$. That is, for each integer $N>0$, $$sum_{k=1}^N,frac{1}{L_k}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^N,frac{1}{k(k-1)}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^infty,frac{1}{k(k-1)}=2,.$$
This means $S:=sumlimits_{k=1}^infty,dfrac{1}{L_k}$ exists and is a positive real number less than $2$. (WolframAlpha states that $Sapprox 1.77111$.)



We argue by contradiction. Suppose contrary that $S=dfrac{a}{b}$ for some relatively prime positive integers $a$ and $b$. Let $p_1,p_2,p_3,ldots$ be the increasing sequence of all prime natural numbers greater than $b$. Using Bertrand's Postulate, $$p_r<p_{r+1}<2,p_r$$ for all $r=1,2,3,ldots$. Thus, $$p_{r+1}-p_rleq p_r-1$$ for each positive integer $r$. Note that, for infinitely many positive integers $r$, it holds that $p_requiv 2pmod{3}$. Therefore, the equality $p_{r+1}-p_r=p_r-1$ does not happen (or else, $p_{r+1}equiv 0pmod{3}$). Hence, $p_{r+1}-p_r<p_r-1$ for infinitely many such $r$.



Now,
$$begin{align}
L_{p_1-1},left(S-sum_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)&leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{L_{p_1-1}}{L_k}leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{1}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}
\
&=sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r+1}-p_r}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}<sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r}-1}{p_1p_2ldots p_r}
\
&=left(1-frac{1}{p_1}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1}-frac{1}{p_1p_2}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1p_2}-frac{1}{p_1p_2p_3}right)+ldots
\
&=1,.
end{align}$$
This is a contradiction, as $bmid L_{p-1}$ and $S>sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}$, which means $L_{p-1},left(S-sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)$ is a positive integer. Therefore, $S$ cannot be a rational number.






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    $begingroup$

    I am guessing that this is the exact same solution the OP (TheBigOne) got, but I am putting my answer here, so that the thread is answered. Even though this proof requires some non-elementary knowledge (Bertrand's Postulate), it is still a proof. (Although I disagree that Bertrand's Postulate is not elementary. The proof I know is quite elementary, and as i707107 said, Bertrand's Postulate is very widely known.) The solution also utilizes the fact that there are infinitely many prime natural numbers congruent to $2$ modulo $3$. (This fact has an elementary proof.)



    First, let $L_k:=text{lcm}(1,2,ldots,k)$ for $k=1,2,3,ldots$. Note that $L_1=1$ and $L_kgeq k(k-1)$ for $kgeq 2$. That is, for each integer $N>0$, $$sum_{k=1}^N,frac{1}{L_k}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^N,frac{1}{k(k-1)}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^infty,frac{1}{k(k-1)}=2,.$$
    This means $S:=sumlimits_{k=1}^infty,dfrac{1}{L_k}$ exists and is a positive real number less than $2$. (WolframAlpha states that $Sapprox 1.77111$.)



    We argue by contradiction. Suppose contrary that $S=dfrac{a}{b}$ for some relatively prime positive integers $a$ and $b$. Let $p_1,p_2,p_3,ldots$ be the increasing sequence of all prime natural numbers greater than $b$. Using Bertrand's Postulate, $$p_r<p_{r+1}<2,p_r$$ for all $r=1,2,3,ldots$. Thus, $$p_{r+1}-p_rleq p_r-1$$ for each positive integer $r$. Note that, for infinitely many positive integers $r$, it holds that $p_requiv 2pmod{3}$. Therefore, the equality $p_{r+1}-p_r=p_r-1$ does not happen (or else, $p_{r+1}equiv 0pmod{3}$). Hence, $p_{r+1}-p_r<p_r-1$ for infinitely many such $r$.



    Now,
    $$begin{align}
    L_{p_1-1},left(S-sum_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)&leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{L_{p_1-1}}{L_k}leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{1}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}
    \
    &=sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r+1}-p_r}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}<sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r}-1}{p_1p_2ldots p_r}
    \
    &=left(1-frac{1}{p_1}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1}-frac{1}{p_1p_2}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1p_2}-frac{1}{p_1p_2p_3}right)+ldots
    \
    &=1,.
    end{align}$$
    This is a contradiction, as $bmid L_{p-1}$ and $S>sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}$, which means $L_{p-1},left(S-sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)$ is a positive integer. Therefore, $S$ cannot be a rational number.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      4












      $begingroup$

      I am guessing that this is the exact same solution the OP (TheBigOne) got, but I am putting my answer here, so that the thread is answered. Even though this proof requires some non-elementary knowledge (Bertrand's Postulate), it is still a proof. (Although I disagree that Bertrand's Postulate is not elementary. The proof I know is quite elementary, and as i707107 said, Bertrand's Postulate is very widely known.) The solution also utilizes the fact that there are infinitely many prime natural numbers congruent to $2$ modulo $3$. (This fact has an elementary proof.)



      First, let $L_k:=text{lcm}(1,2,ldots,k)$ for $k=1,2,3,ldots$. Note that $L_1=1$ and $L_kgeq k(k-1)$ for $kgeq 2$. That is, for each integer $N>0$, $$sum_{k=1}^N,frac{1}{L_k}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^N,frac{1}{k(k-1)}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^infty,frac{1}{k(k-1)}=2,.$$
      This means $S:=sumlimits_{k=1}^infty,dfrac{1}{L_k}$ exists and is a positive real number less than $2$. (WolframAlpha states that $Sapprox 1.77111$.)



      We argue by contradiction. Suppose contrary that $S=dfrac{a}{b}$ for some relatively prime positive integers $a$ and $b$. Let $p_1,p_2,p_3,ldots$ be the increasing sequence of all prime natural numbers greater than $b$. Using Bertrand's Postulate, $$p_r<p_{r+1}<2,p_r$$ for all $r=1,2,3,ldots$. Thus, $$p_{r+1}-p_rleq p_r-1$$ for each positive integer $r$. Note that, for infinitely many positive integers $r$, it holds that $p_requiv 2pmod{3}$. Therefore, the equality $p_{r+1}-p_r=p_r-1$ does not happen (or else, $p_{r+1}equiv 0pmod{3}$). Hence, $p_{r+1}-p_r<p_r-1$ for infinitely many such $r$.



      Now,
      $$begin{align}
      L_{p_1-1},left(S-sum_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)&leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{L_{p_1-1}}{L_k}leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{1}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}
      \
      &=sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r+1}-p_r}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}<sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r}-1}{p_1p_2ldots p_r}
      \
      &=left(1-frac{1}{p_1}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1}-frac{1}{p_1p_2}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1p_2}-frac{1}{p_1p_2p_3}right)+ldots
      \
      &=1,.
      end{align}$$
      This is a contradiction, as $bmid L_{p-1}$ and $S>sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}$, which means $L_{p-1},left(S-sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)$ is a positive integer. Therefore, $S$ cannot be a rational number.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        I am guessing that this is the exact same solution the OP (TheBigOne) got, but I am putting my answer here, so that the thread is answered. Even though this proof requires some non-elementary knowledge (Bertrand's Postulate), it is still a proof. (Although I disagree that Bertrand's Postulate is not elementary. The proof I know is quite elementary, and as i707107 said, Bertrand's Postulate is very widely known.) The solution also utilizes the fact that there are infinitely many prime natural numbers congruent to $2$ modulo $3$. (This fact has an elementary proof.)



        First, let $L_k:=text{lcm}(1,2,ldots,k)$ for $k=1,2,3,ldots$. Note that $L_1=1$ and $L_kgeq k(k-1)$ for $kgeq 2$. That is, for each integer $N>0$, $$sum_{k=1}^N,frac{1}{L_k}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^N,frac{1}{k(k-1)}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^infty,frac{1}{k(k-1)}=2,.$$
        This means $S:=sumlimits_{k=1}^infty,dfrac{1}{L_k}$ exists and is a positive real number less than $2$. (WolframAlpha states that $Sapprox 1.77111$.)



        We argue by contradiction. Suppose contrary that $S=dfrac{a}{b}$ for some relatively prime positive integers $a$ and $b$. Let $p_1,p_2,p_3,ldots$ be the increasing sequence of all prime natural numbers greater than $b$. Using Bertrand's Postulate, $$p_r<p_{r+1}<2,p_r$$ for all $r=1,2,3,ldots$. Thus, $$p_{r+1}-p_rleq p_r-1$$ for each positive integer $r$. Note that, for infinitely many positive integers $r$, it holds that $p_requiv 2pmod{3}$. Therefore, the equality $p_{r+1}-p_r=p_r-1$ does not happen (or else, $p_{r+1}equiv 0pmod{3}$). Hence, $p_{r+1}-p_r<p_r-1$ for infinitely many such $r$.



        Now,
        $$begin{align}
        L_{p_1-1},left(S-sum_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)&leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{L_{p_1-1}}{L_k}leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{1}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}
        \
        &=sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r+1}-p_r}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}<sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r}-1}{p_1p_2ldots p_r}
        \
        &=left(1-frac{1}{p_1}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1}-frac{1}{p_1p_2}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1p_2}-frac{1}{p_1p_2p_3}right)+ldots
        \
        &=1,.
        end{align}$$
        This is a contradiction, as $bmid L_{p-1}$ and $S>sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}$, which means $L_{p-1},left(S-sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)$ is a positive integer. Therefore, $S$ cannot be a rational number.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        I am guessing that this is the exact same solution the OP (TheBigOne) got, but I am putting my answer here, so that the thread is answered. Even though this proof requires some non-elementary knowledge (Bertrand's Postulate), it is still a proof. (Although I disagree that Bertrand's Postulate is not elementary. The proof I know is quite elementary, and as i707107 said, Bertrand's Postulate is very widely known.) The solution also utilizes the fact that there are infinitely many prime natural numbers congruent to $2$ modulo $3$. (This fact has an elementary proof.)



        First, let $L_k:=text{lcm}(1,2,ldots,k)$ for $k=1,2,3,ldots$. Note that $L_1=1$ and $L_kgeq k(k-1)$ for $kgeq 2$. That is, for each integer $N>0$, $$sum_{k=1}^N,frac{1}{L_k}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^N,frac{1}{k(k-1)}leq 1+sum_{k=2}^infty,frac{1}{k(k-1)}=2,.$$
        This means $S:=sumlimits_{k=1}^infty,dfrac{1}{L_k}$ exists and is a positive real number less than $2$. (WolframAlpha states that $Sapprox 1.77111$.)



        We argue by contradiction. Suppose contrary that $S=dfrac{a}{b}$ for some relatively prime positive integers $a$ and $b$. Let $p_1,p_2,p_3,ldots$ be the increasing sequence of all prime natural numbers greater than $b$. Using Bertrand's Postulate, $$p_r<p_{r+1}<2,p_r$$ for all $r=1,2,3,ldots$. Thus, $$p_{r+1}-p_rleq p_r-1$$ for each positive integer $r$. Note that, for infinitely many positive integers $r$, it holds that $p_requiv 2pmod{3}$. Therefore, the equality $p_{r+1}-p_r=p_r-1$ does not happen (or else, $p_{r+1}equiv 0pmod{3}$). Hence, $p_{r+1}-p_r<p_r-1$ for infinitely many such $r$.



        Now,
        $$begin{align}
        L_{p_1-1},left(S-sum_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)&leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{L_{p_1-1}}{L_k}leq sum_{r=1}^infty,sum_{k=p_r}^{p_{r+1}-1},frac{1}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}
        \
        &=sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r+1}-p_r}{p_1p_2cdots p_r}<sum_{r=1}^infty,frac{p_{r}-1}{p_1p_2ldots p_r}
        \
        &=left(1-frac{1}{p_1}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1}-frac{1}{p_1p_2}right)+left(frac{1}{p_1p_2}-frac{1}{p_1p_2p_3}right)+ldots
        \
        &=1,.
        end{align}$$
        This is a contradiction, as $bmid L_{p-1}$ and $S>sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}$, which means $L_{p-1},left(S-sumlimits_{k=1}^{p_1-1},frac{1}{L_k}right)$ is a positive integer. Therefore, $S$ cannot be a rational number.







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        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jul 29 '18 at 17:25

























        answered Jul 29 '18 at 17:06









        BatominovskiBatominovski

        33.2k33393




        33.2k33393






























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