What is an example of a proof by minimal counterexample?











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I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?










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  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    2 days ago










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    yesterday






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    yesterday















up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1












I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    2 days ago










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    yesterday






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    yesterday













up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1






1





I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?










share|cite|improve this question















I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?







proof-writing examples-counterexamples infinite-descent






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago









José Carlos Santos

139k18111203




139k18111203










asked 2 days ago









Jonathan Low

465




465








  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    2 days ago










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    yesterday






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    yesterday














  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    2 days ago










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    yesterday






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    yesterday








3




3




If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
– saulspatz
2 days ago




If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
– saulspatz
2 days ago












Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
– Ethan Bolker
2 days ago




Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
– Ethan Bolker
2 days ago




1




1




Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
– Uwe
2 days ago




Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
– Uwe
2 days ago












Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
– forest
yesterday




Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
– forest
yesterday




2




2




(If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
– user202729
yesterday




(If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
– user202729
yesterday










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
22
down vote



accepted










Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin{2,3,ldots,n-1}$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    13
    down vote













    Such a proof will often go as follows.




    • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

    • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

    • Consider the smallest counterexample.

    • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

    • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

    • Therefore $P$ is true.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      9
      down vote













      Assume the $sqrt{2}$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt{2}=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



      I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






      share|cite|improve this answer

















      • 1




        In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
        – LarsH
        2 days ago








      • 1




        It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
        – Mason
        2 days ago






      • 3




        @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
        – Dan M.
        2 days ago










      • Here are the details
        – Mason
        2 days ago






      • 1




        @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
        – chi
        yesterday




















      up vote
      1
      down vote













      A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



      Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



      Proof ${bf 1}, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



      Proof ${bf 2}, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



      Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



      $begin{eqnarray}rm S closed under {bf subtraction} &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf mod} = remainder = repeated subtraction \
      &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf gcd} = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) end{eqnarray}$



      This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        4 Answers
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        active

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        4 Answers
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        up vote
        22
        down vote



        accepted










        Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin{2,3,ldots,n-1}$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          22
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin{2,3,ldots,n-1}$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






          share|cite|improve this answer























            up vote
            22
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            22
            down vote



            accepted






            Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin{2,3,ldots,n-1}$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbb{N}setminus{1}$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin{2,3,ldots,n-1}$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 2 days ago









            José Carlos Santos

            139k18111203




            139k18111203






















                up vote
                13
                down vote













                Such a proof will often go as follows.




                • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                • Therefore $P$ is true.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  13
                  down vote













                  Such a proof will often go as follows.




                  • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                  • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                  • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                  • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                  • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                  • Therefore $P$ is true.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    13
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    13
                    down vote









                    Such a proof will often go as follows.




                    • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                    • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                    • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                    • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                    • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                    • Therefore $P$ is true.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Such a proof will often go as follows.




                    • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                    • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                    • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                    • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                    • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                    • Therefore $P$ is true.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 2 days ago









                    Patrick Stevens

                    27.8k52873




                    27.8k52873






















                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote













                        Assume the $sqrt{2}$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt{2}=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

















                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          2 days ago








                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          2 days ago










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          yesterday

















                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote













                        Assume the $sqrt{2}$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt{2}=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

















                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          2 days ago








                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          2 days ago










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          yesterday















                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote









                        Assume the $sqrt{2}$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt{2}=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        Assume the $sqrt{2}$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt{2}=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered 2 days ago









                        Mason

                        1,6501325




                        1,6501325








                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          2 days ago








                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          2 days ago










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          yesterday
















                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          2 days ago








                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          2 days ago










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          2 days ago






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          yesterday










                        1




                        1




                        In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                        – LarsH
                        2 days ago






                        In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                        – LarsH
                        2 days ago






                        1




                        1




                        It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                        – Mason
                        2 days ago




                        It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                        – Mason
                        2 days ago




                        3




                        3




                        @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                        – Dan M.
                        2 days ago




                        @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                        – Dan M.
                        2 days ago












                        Here are the details
                        – Mason
                        2 days ago




                        Here are the details
                        – Mason
                        2 days ago




                        1




                        1




                        @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                        – chi
                        yesterday






                        @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                        – chi
                        yesterday












                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                        Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                        Proof ${bf 1}, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                        Proof ${bf 2}, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                        Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                        $begin{eqnarray}rm S closed under {bf subtraction} &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf mod} = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                        &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf gcd} = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) end{eqnarray}$



                        This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                          Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                          Proof ${bf 1}, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                          Proof ${bf 2}, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                          Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                          $begin{eqnarray}rm S closed under {bf subtraction} &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf mod} = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                          &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf gcd} = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) end{eqnarray}$



                          This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                            Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                            Proof ${bf 1}, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                            Proof ${bf 2}, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                            Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                            $begin{eqnarray}rm S closed under {bf subtraction} &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf mod} = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                            &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf gcd} = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) end{eqnarray}$



                            This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                            Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                            Proof ${bf 1}, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                            Proof ${bf 2}, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                            Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                            $begin{eqnarray}rm S closed under {bf subtraction} &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf mod} = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                            &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under {bf gcd} = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) end{eqnarray}$



                            This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












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                            answered 2 days ago









                            Bill Dubuque

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