Ceiling and Floor function












3












$begingroup$


I believe that I have found a trigonometric expression for both the ceiling and floor function, and I seek confirmation that it is, indeed, correct.



Update



enter image description here










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    your function is not defined for integer
    $endgroup$
    – stity
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:02






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Because $tan$ of integer multiples of $pi$ is $0$ so $cot$ is undefined at these points.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Just define $f(x)=arctan(cot(pi x))/pi$ for $xnotinmathbb Z$ and $f(x)=1/2$ for $xinmathbb Z$ and then use that $f$ in your formula for floor.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:09






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor yes $lim_{xto infty}arctan(x)=frac{pi}{2}$. Gregory is saying that you make your function $x-frac{1}{2}+f(x)$ where $f$ is defined as in his comment
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:12








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor I mean define $f(x)=left{begin{array}{ll} arctan(cot(pi x))/pi, & xnotinmathbb Z\ 1/2, & xinmathbb Zend{array}right.$. Then $lfloor{x}rfloor = x - frac{1}{2} + f(x)$ $forall x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:19


















3












$begingroup$


I believe that I have found a trigonometric expression for both the ceiling and floor function, and I seek confirmation that it is, indeed, correct.



Update



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    your function is not defined for integer
    $endgroup$
    – stity
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:02






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Because $tan$ of integer multiples of $pi$ is $0$ so $cot$ is undefined at these points.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Just define $f(x)=arctan(cot(pi x))/pi$ for $xnotinmathbb Z$ and $f(x)=1/2$ for $xinmathbb Z$ and then use that $f$ in your formula for floor.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:09






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor yes $lim_{xto infty}arctan(x)=frac{pi}{2}$. Gregory is saying that you make your function $x-frac{1}{2}+f(x)$ where $f$ is defined as in his comment
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:12








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor I mean define $f(x)=left{begin{array}{ll} arctan(cot(pi x))/pi, & xnotinmathbb Z\ 1/2, & xinmathbb Zend{array}right.$. Then $lfloor{x}rfloor = x - frac{1}{2} + f(x)$ $forall x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:19
















3












3








3


3



$begingroup$


I believe that I have found a trigonometric expression for both the ceiling and floor function, and I seek confirmation that it is, indeed, correct.



Update



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I believe that I have found a trigonometric expression for both the ceiling and floor function, and I seek confirmation that it is, indeed, correct.



Update



enter image description here







trigonometry pi floor-function ceiling-function






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 25 '15 at 12:10







Taylor

















asked Nov 24 '15 at 21:55









TaylorTaylor

333617




333617












  • $begingroup$
    your function is not defined for integer
    $endgroup$
    – stity
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:02






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Because $tan$ of integer multiples of $pi$ is $0$ so $cot$ is undefined at these points.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Just define $f(x)=arctan(cot(pi x))/pi$ for $xnotinmathbb Z$ and $f(x)=1/2$ for $xinmathbb Z$ and then use that $f$ in your formula for floor.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:09






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor yes $lim_{xto infty}arctan(x)=frac{pi}{2}$. Gregory is saying that you make your function $x-frac{1}{2}+f(x)$ where $f$ is defined as in his comment
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:12








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor I mean define $f(x)=left{begin{array}{ll} arctan(cot(pi x))/pi, & xnotinmathbb Z\ 1/2, & xinmathbb Zend{array}right.$. Then $lfloor{x}rfloor = x - frac{1}{2} + f(x)$ $forall x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:19




















  • $begingroup$
    your function is not defined for integer
    $endgroup$
    – stity
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:02






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Because $tan$ of integer multiples of $pi$ is $0$ so $cot$ is undefined at these points.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Just define $f(x)=arctan(cot(pi x))/pi$ for $xnotinmathbb Z$ and $f(x)=1/2$ for $xinmathbb Z$ and then use that $f$ in your formula for floor.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:09






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor yes $lim_{xto infty}arctan(x)=frac{pi}{2}$. Gregory is saying that you make your function $x-frac{1}{2}+f(x)$ where $f$ is defined as in his comment
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:12








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Taylor I mean define $f(x)=left{begin{array}{ll} arctan(cot(pi x))/pi, & xnotinmathbb Z\ 1/2, & xinmathbb Zend{array}right.$. Then $lfloor{x}rfloor = x - frac{1}{2} + f(x)$ $forall x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gregory Grant
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:19


















$begingroup$
your function is not defined for integer
$endgroup$
– stity
Nov 24 '15 at 22:02




$begingroup$
your function is not defined for integer
$endgroup$
– stity
Nov 24 '15 at 22:02




2




2




$begingroup$
Because $tan$ of integer multiples of $pi$ is $0$ so $cot$ is undefined at these points.
$endgroup$
– Sam Weatherhog
Nov 24 '15 at 22:05




$begingroup$
Because $tan$ of integer multiples of $pi$ is $0$ so $cot$ is undefined at these points.
$endgroup$
– Sam Weatherhog
Nov 24 '15 at 22:05




1




1




$begingroup$
Just define $f(x)=arctan(cot(pi x))/pi$ for $xnotinmathbb Z$ and $f(x)=1/2$ for $xinmathbb Z$ and then use that $f$ in your formula for floor.
$endgroup$
– Gregory Grant
Nov 24 '15 at 22:09




$begingroup$
Just define $f(x)=arctan(cot(pi x))/pi$ for $xnotinmathbb Z$ and $f(x)=1/2$ for $xinmathbb Z$ and then use that $f$ in your formula for floor.
$endgroup$
– Gregory Grant
Nov 24 '15 at 22:09




2




2




$begingroup$
@Taylor yes $lim_{xto infty}arctan(x)=frac{pi}{2}$. Gregory is saying that you make your function $x-frac{1}{2}+f(x)$ where $f$ is defined as in his comment
$endgroup$
– Sam Weatherhog
Nov 24 '15 at 22:12






$begingroup$
@Taylor yes $lim_{xto infty}arctan(x)=frac{pi}{2}$. Gregory is saying that you make your function $x-frac{1}{2}+f(x)$ where $f$ is defined as in his comment
$endgroup$
– Sam Weatherhog
Nov 24 '15 at 22:12






1




1




$begingroup$
@Taylor I mean define $f(x)=left{begin{array}{ll} arctan(cot(pi x))/pi, & xnotinmathbb Z\ 1/2, & xinmathbb Zend{array}right.$. Then $lfloor{x}rfloor = x - frac{1}{2} + f(x)$ $forall x$.
$endgroup$
– Gregory Grant
Nov 24 '15 at 22:19






$begingroup$
@Taylor I mean define $f(x)=left{begin{array}{ll} arctan(cot(pi x))/pi, & xnotinmathbb Z\ 1/2, & xinmathbb Zend{array}right.$. Then $lfloor{x}rfloor = x - frac{1}{2} + f(x)$ $forall x$.
$endgroup$
– Gregory Grant
Nov 24 '15 at 22:19












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Note that you have the identity $tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-xright)=cot(x)$. Using this, your formula for the floor function is:



$$
begin{split} lfloor x rfloor &= x-frac{1}{2}+frac{arctanleft(tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-picdot xright)right)}{pi} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{frac{pi}{2}-picdot x+npi}{pi}, text{ for }ninmathbb{Z} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{2}-x+n \ &=n end{split}
$$



Then there is some $nin mathbb{Z}$ such that $n=lfloor x rfloor$. If, as usual, you insist that $-pile arctan(x) le pi$ this then forces:



$$
begin{split} && -1le frac{1}{2}-x+n le 1 \ &implies& -frac{3}{2}le n-x le frac{1}{2} \ &implies& x-frac{3}{2} le n le x+frac{1}{2} end{split}
$$



So the value for $n$ is close to $lfloor x rfloor$. I'm not sure how computers choose which value to pick for $arctan$ but it appears to always pick the right one for your formula to work. I'm not sure it would be a good idea to use this formula in your work unless you know which value of $arctan$ to pick to ensure that you get the right answer.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Does that mean that the formula is correct, then?
    $endgroup$
    – Taylor
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:32










  • $begingroup$
    It will be correct for some value of $arctan$ but $arctan$ is multiple valued so then you're just choosing the value of $arctan$ that makes the formula work. For example, if $x=1.6$ then $arctan(cot(pi*x))$ could be $-0.3142$ (which makes the formula work) or you could choose $-3.4558$ and this value will not make the formula work.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:37



















3












$begingroup$

If you're using the single-valued $arctan$, i.e. $-frac{pi}{2} leq arctan(x) leq frac{pi}{2}$, which is what all computer languages I've seen use, this works perfectly fine.



Proof:



Let $x = s(a + b)$, where $a in mathbb{N}$, $0 leq b < 1$ and $s in {-1,1}$. We can call $a$ the absolute integer part, $b$ the absolute fractional part, and $s$ is $x$'s sign.



Then:
$$
begin{align*}
frac{arctan(cot(pi x))}{pi}
&= frac{arctan(cot(pi s(a + b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi a + pi b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(frac{pi}{2} - pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(pi(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)}{pi}\[1em]
&= sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[1em]
end{align*}
$$



Note that we can assert that $arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)) = pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)$ without issues only because



$$
begin{alignat*}{5}
0 && quad leq && b quad && < quad && 1 &&implies\[0.5em]
0 && quad geq && -b quad && > quad && -1 &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{1}{2} && quad geq && quad frac{1}{2} - b quad && > quad && -frac{1}{2} &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{pi}{2} && quad geq && piBigg(frac{1}{2} - bBigg) quad && > quad && -frac{pi}{2} &&\
end{alignat*}
$$



$arctan(tan(x)) = x$ only holds for $x$ in that range. For example, $arctan(tan(x)) = x - pi$ if $frac{pi}{2} < x < pi$.



With that said...
$$
begin{align*}
lfloor x rfloor &= x - frac{1}{2} + sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b) - frac{1 - s}{2} - sb\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b - b) - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
&= sa - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
end{align*}
$$



If $s=1$, $lfloor xrfloor = a - frac{1 - 1}{2} = a$.



If $s=-1$, $lfloor xrfloor = -a - frac{1 + 1}{2} = -a - 1 = -(a + 1)$.



This works because $lfloor pm y.uwv rfloor$ is y if the number is positive, and $-(y + 1)$ if the number is negative. e.g. $lfloor 1.2rfloor = 1$ but $lfloor -1.2rfloor = -2$.



Proving that your $ceil$ function works should go about the same way.



I realize I am three years late to this but I initially was going to post my own trigonometric floor:



$$
lfloor x rfloor = x - text{frac}(x)\[1.4em]
%
text{frac}(x) = text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)Bigg( frac{cos^{-1}(cos(2pi x))}{2pi} - frac{1}{2} Bigg) + frac{1}{2}left| text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)right|\[1.4em]
%
text{sgn}(x) = frac{1}{2}Bigg(frac{cot^{-1}(x) - cot^{-1}(-x)}{big|cot^{-1}(x)big|}Bigg)
$$



But yours seems a bit simpler.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is excellent and much better defined, thank you for sharing +1
    $endgroup$
    – Albert Renshaw
    Dec 4 '18 at 21:10











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Note that you have the identity $tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-xright)=cot(x)$. Using this, your formula for the floor function is:



$$
begin{split} lfloor x rfloor &= x-frac{1}{2}+frac{arctanleft(tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-picdot xright)right)}{pi} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{frac{pi}{2}-picdot x+npi}{pi}, text{ for }ninmathbb{Z} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{2}-x+n \ &=n end{split}
$$



Then there is some $nin mathbb{Z}$ such that $n=lfloor x rfloor$. If, as usual, you insist that $-pile arctan(x) le pi$ this then forces:



$$
begin{split} && -1le frac{1}{2}-x+n le 1 \ &implies& -frac{3}{2}le n-x le frac{1}{2} \ &implies& x-frac{3}{2} le n le x+frac{1}{2} end{split}
$$



So the value for $n$ is close to $lfloor x rfloor$. I'm not sure how computers choose which value to pick for $arctan$ but it appears to always pick the right one for your formula to work. I'm not sure it would be a good idea to use this formula in your work unless you know which value of $arctan$ to pick to ensure that you get the right answer.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Does that mean that the formula is correct, then?
    $endgroup$
    – Taylor
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:32










  • $begingroup$
    It will be correct for some value of $arctan$ but $arctan$ is multiple valued so then you're just choosing the value of $arctan$ that makes the formula work. For example, if $x=1.6$ then $arctan(cot(pi*x))$ could be $-0.3142$ (which makes the formula work) or you could choose $-3.4558$ and this value will not make the formula work.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:37
















1












$begingroup$

Note that you have the identity $tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-xright)=cot(x)$. Using this, your formula for the floor function is:



$$
begin{split} lfloor x rfloor &= x-frac{1}{2}+frac{arctanleft(tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-picdot xright)right)}{pi} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{frac{pi}{2}-picdot x+npi}{pi}, text{ for }ninmathbb{Z} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{2}-x+n \ &=n end{split}
$$



Then there is some $nin mathbb{Z}$ such that $n=lfloor x rfloor$. If, as usual, you insist that $-pile arctan(x) le pi$ this then forces:



$$
begin{split} && -1le frac{1}{2}-x+n le 1 \ &implies& -frac{3}{2}le n-x le frac{1}{2} \ &implies& x-frac{3}{2} le n le x+frac{1}{2} end{split}
$$



So the value for $n$ is close to $lfloor x rfloor$. I'm not sure how computers choose which value to pick for $arctan$ but it appears to always pick the right one for your formula to work. I'm not sure it would be a good idea to use this formula in your work unless you know which value of $arctan$ to pick to ensure that you get the right answer.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Does that mean that the formula is correct, then?
    $endgroup$
    – Taylor
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:32










  • $begingroup$
    It will be correct for some value of $arctan$ but $arctan$ is multiple valued so then you're just choosing the value of $arctan$ that makes the formula work. For example, if $x=1.6$ then $arctan(cot(pi*x))$ could be $-0.3142$ (which makes the formula work) or you could choose $-3.4558$ and this value will not make the formula work.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:37














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Note that you have the identity $tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-xright)=cot(x)$. Using this, your formula for the floor function is:



$$
begin{split} lfloor x rfloor &= x-frac{1}{2}+frac{arctanleft(tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-picdot xright)right)}{pi} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{frac{pi}{2}-picdot x+npi}{pi}, text{ for }ninmathbb{Z} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{2}-x+n \ &=n end{split}
$$



Then there is some $nin mathbb{Z}$ such that $n=lfloor x rfloor$. If, as usual, you insist that $-pile arctan(x) le pi$ this then forces:



$$
begin{split} && -1le frac{1}{2}-x+n le 1 \ &implies& -frac{3}{2}le n-x le frac{1}{2} \ &implies& x-frac{3}{2} le n le x+frac{1}{2} end{split}
$$



So the value for $n$ is close to $lfloor x rfloor$. I'm not sure how computers choose which value to pick for $arctan$ but it appears to always pick the right one for your formula to work. I'm not sure it would be a good idea to use this formula in your work unless you know which value of $arctan$ to pick to ensure that you get the right answer.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Note that you have the identity $tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-xright)=cot(x)$. Using this, your formula for the floor function is:



$$
begin{split} lfloor x rfloor &= x-frac{1}{2}+frac{arctanleft(tanleft(frac{pi}{2}-picdot xright)right)}{pi} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{frac{pi}{2}-picdot x+npi}{pi}, text{ for }ninmathbb{Z} \ &=x-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{2}-x+n \ &=n end{split}
$$



Then there is some $nin mathbb{Z}$ such that $n=lfloor x rfloor$. If, as usual, you insist that $-pile arctan(x) le pi$ this then forces:



$$
begin{split} && -1le frac{1}{2}-x+n le 1 \ &implies& -frac{3}{2}le n-x le frac{1}{2} \ &implies& x-frac{3}{2} le n le x+frac{1}{2} end{split}
$$



So the value for $n$ is close to $lfloor x rfloor$. I'm not sure how computers choose which value to pick for $arctan$ but it appears to always pick the right one for your formula to work. I'm not sure it would be a good idea to use this formula in your work unless you know which value of $arctan$ to pick to ensure that you get the right answer.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 24 '15 at 22:52

























answered Nov 24 '15 at 22:30









Sam WeatherhogSam Weatherhog

1,267515




1,267515












  • $begingroup$
    Does that mean that the formula is correct, then?
    $endgroup$
    – Taylor
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:32










  • $begingroup$
    It will be correct for some value of $arctan$ but $arctan$ is multiple valued so then you're just choosing the value of $arctan$ that makes the formula work. For example, if $x=1.6$ then $arctan(cot(pi*x))$ could be $-0.3142$ (which makes the formula work) or you could choose $-3.4558$ and this value will not make the formula work.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:37


















  • $begingroup$
    Does that mean that the formula is correct, then?
    $endgroup$
    – Taylor
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:32










  • $begingroup$
    It will be correct for some value of $arctan$ but $arctan$ is multiple valued so then you're just choosing the value of $arctan$ that makes the formula work. For example, if $x=1.6$ then $arctan(cot(pi*x))$ could be $-0.3142$ (which makes the formula work) or you could choose $-3.4558$ and this value will not make the formula work.
    $endgroup$
    – Sam Weatherhog
    Nov 24 '15 at 22:37
















$begingroup$
Does that mean that the formula is correct, then?
$endgroup$
– Taylor
Nov 24 '15 at 22:32




$begingroup$
Does that mean that the formula is correct, then?
$endgroup$
– Taylor
Nov 24 '15 at 22:32












$begingroup$
It will be correct for some value of $arctan$ but $arctan$ is multiple valued so then you're just choosing the value of $arctan$ that makes the formula work. For example, if $x=1.6$ then $arctan(cot(pi*x))$ could be $-0.3142$ (which makes the formula work) or you could choose $-3.4558$ and this value will not make the formula work.
$endgroup$
– Sam Weatherhog
Nov 24 '15 at 22:37




$begingroup$
It will be correct for some value of $arctan$ but $arctan$ is multiple valued so then you're just choosing the value of $arctan$ that makes the formula work. For example, if $x=1.6$ then $arctan(cot(pi*x))$ could be $-0.3142$ (which makes the formula work) or you could choose $-3.4558$ and this value will not make the formula work.
$endgroup$
– Sam Weatherhog
Nov 24 '15 at 22:37











3












$begingroup$

If you're using the single-valued $arctan$, i.e. $-frac{pi}{2} leq arctan(x) leq frac{pi}{2}$, which is what all computer languages I've seen use, this works perfectly fine.



Proof:



Let $x = s(a + b)$, where $a in mathbb{N}$, $0 leq b < 1$ and $s in {-1,1}$. We can call $a$ the absolute integer part, $b$ the absolute fractional part, and $s$ is $x$'s sign.



Then:
$$
begin{align*}
frac{arctan(cot(pi x))}{pi}
&= frac{arctan(cot(pi s(a + b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi a + pi b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(frac{pi}{2} - pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(pi(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)}{pi}\[1em]
&= sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[1em]
end{align*}
$$



Note that we can assert that $arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)) = pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)$ without issues only because



$$
begin{alignat*}{5}
0 && quad leq && b quad && < quad && 1 &&implies\[0.5em]
0 && quad geq && -b quad && > quad && -1 &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{1}{2} && quad geq && quad frac{1}{2} - b quad && > quad && -frac{1}{2} &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{pi}{2} && quad geq && piBigg(frac{1}{2} - bBigg) quad && > quad && -frac{pi}{2} &&\
end{alignat*}
$$



$arctan(tan(x)) = x$ only holds for $x$ in that range. For example, $arctan(tan(x)) = x - pi$ if $frac{pi}{2} < x < pi$.



With that said...
$$
begin{align*}
lfloor x rfloor &= x - frac{1}{2} + sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b) - frac{1 - s}{2} - sb\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b - b) - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
&= sa - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
end{align*}
$$



If $s=1$, $lfloor xrfloor = a - frac{1 - 1}{2} = a$.



If $s=-1$, $lfloor xrfloor = -a - frac{1 + 1}{2} = -a - 1 = -(a + 1)$.



This works because $lfloor pm y.uwv rfloor$ is y if the number is positive, and $-(y + 1)$ if the number is negative. e.g. $lfloor 1.2rfloor = 1$ but $lfloor -1.2rfloor = -2$.



Proving that your $ceil$ function works should go about the same way.



I realize I am three years late to this but I initially was going to post my own trigonometric floor:



$$
lfloor x rfloor = x - text{frac}(x)\[1.4em]
%
text{frac}(x) = text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)Bigg( frac{cos^{-1}(cos(2pi x))}{2pi} - frac{1}{2} Bigg) + frac{1}{2}left| text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)right|\[1.4em]
%
text{sgn}(x) = frac{1}{2}Bigg(frac{cot^{-1}(x) - cot^{-1}(-x)}{big|cot^{-1}(x)big|}Bigg)
$$



But yours seems a bit simpler.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is excellent and much better defined, thank you for sharing +1
    $endgroup$
    – Albert Renshaw
    Dec 4 '18 at 21:10
















3












$begingroup$

If you're using the single-valued $arctan$, i.e. $-frac{pi}{2} leq arctan(x) leq frac{pi}{2}$, which is what all computer languages I've seen use, this works perfectly fine.



Proof:



Let $x = s(a + b)$, where $a in mathbb{N}$, $0 leq b < 1$ and $s in {-1,1}$. We can call $a$ the absolute integer part, $b$ the absolute fractional part, and $s$ is $x$'s sign.



Then:
$$
begin{align*}
frac{arctan(cot(pi x))}{pi}
&= frac{arctan(cot(pi s(a + b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi a + pi b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(frac{pi}{2} - pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(pi(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)}{pi}\[1em]
&= sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[1em]
end{align*}
$$



Note that we can assert that $arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)) = pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)$ without issues only because



$$
begin{alignat*}{5}
0 && quad leq && b quad && < quad && 1 &&implies\[0.5em]
0 && quad geq && -b quad && > quad && -1 &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{1}{2} && quad geq && quad frac{1}{2} - b quad && > quad && -frac{1}{2} &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{pi}{2} && quad geq && piBigg(frac{1}{2} - bBigg) quad && > quad && -frac{pi}{2} &&\
end{alignat*}
$$



$arctan(tan(x)) = x$ only holds for $x$ in that range. For example, $arctan(tan(x)) = x - pi$ if $frac{pi}{2} < x < pi$.



With that said...
$$
begin{align*}
lfloor x rfloor &= x - frac{1}{2} + sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b) - frac{1 - s}{2} - sb\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b - b) - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
&= sa - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
end{align*}
$$



If $s=1$, $lfloor xrfloor = a - frac{1 - 1}{2} = a$.



If $s=-1$, $lfloor xrfloor = -a - frac{1 + 1}{2} = -a - 1 = -(a + 1)$.



This works because $lfloor pm y.uwv rfloor$ is y if the number is positive, and $-(y + 1)$ if the number is negative. e.g. $lfloor 1.2rfloor = 1$ but $lfloor -1.2rfloor = -2$.



Proving that your $ceil$ function works should go about the same way.



I realize I am three years late to this but I initially was going to post my own trigonometric floor:



$$
lfloor x rfloor = x - text{frac}(x)\[1.4em]
%
text{frac}(x) = text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)Bigg( frac{cos^{-1}(cos(2pi x))}{2pi} - frac{1}{2} Bigg) + frac{1}{2}left| text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)right|\[1.4em]
%
text{sgn}(x) = frac{1}{2}Bigg(frac{cot^{-1}(x) - cot^{-1}(-x)}{big|cot^{-1}(x)big|}Bigg)
$$



But yours seems a bit simpler.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is excellent and much better defined, thank you for sharing +1
    $endgroup$
    – Albert Renshaw
    Dec 4 '18 at 21:10














3












3








3





$begingroup$

If you're using the single-valued $arctan$, i.e. $-frac{pi}{2} leq arctan(x) leq frac{pi}{2}$, which is what all computer languages I've seen use, this works perfectly fine.



Proof:



Let $x = s(a + b)$, where $a in mathbb{N}$, $0 leq b < 1$ and $s in {-1,1}$. We can call $a$ the absolute integer part, $b$ the absolute fractional part, and $s$ is $x$'s sign.



Then:
$$
begin{align*}
frac{arctan(cot(pi x))}{pi}
&= frac{arctan(cot(pi s(a + b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi a + pi b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(frac{pi}{2} - pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(pi(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)}{pi}\[1em]
&= sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[1em]
end{align*}
$$



Note that we can assert that $arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)) = pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)$ without issues only because



$$
begin{alignat*}{5}
0 && quad leq && b quad && < quad && 1 &&implies\[0.5em]
0 && quad geq && -b quad && > quad && -1 &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{1}{2} && quad geq && quad frac{1}{2} - b quad && > quad && -frac{1}{2} &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{pi}{2} && quad geq && piBigg(frac{1}{2} - bBigg) quad && > quad && -frac{pi}{2} &&\
end{alignat*}
$$



$arctan(tan(x)) = x$ only holds for $x$ in that range. For example, $arctan(tan(x)) = x - pi$ if $frac{pi}{2} < x < pi$.



With that said...
$$
begin{align*}
lfloor x rfloor &= x - frac{1}{2} + sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b) - frac{1 - s}{2} - sb\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b - b) - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
&= sa - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
end{align*}
$$



If $s=1$, $lfloor xrfloor = a - frac{1 - 1}{2} = a$.



If $s=-1$, $lfloor xrfloor = -a - frac{1 + 1}{2} = -a - 1 = -(a + 1)$.



This works because $lfloor pm y.uwv rfloor$ is y if the number is positive, and $-(y + 1)$ if the number is negative. e.g. $lfloor 1.2rfloor = 1$ but $lfloor -1.2rfloor = -2$.



Proving that your $ceil$ function works should go about the same way.



I realize I am three years late to this but I initially was going to post my own trigonometric floor:



$$
lfloor x rfloor = x - text{frac}(x)\[1.4em]
%
text{frac}(x) = text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)Bigg( frac{cos^{-1}(cos(2pi x))}{2pi} - frac{1}{2} Bigg) + frac{1}{2}left| text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)right|\[1.4em]
%
text{sgn}(x) = frac{1}{2}Bigg(frac{cot^{-1}(x) - cot^{-1}(-x)}{big|cot^{-1}(x)big|}Bigg)
$$



But yours seems a bit simpler.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



If you're using the single-valued $arctan$, i.e. $-frac{pi}{2} leq arctan(x) leq frac{pi}{2}$, which is what all computer languages I've seen use, this works perfectly fine.



Proof:



Let $x = s(a + b)$, where $a in mathbb{N}$, $0 leq b < 1$ and $s in {-1,1}$. We can call $a$ the absolute integer part, $b$ the absolute fractional part, and $s$ is $x$'s sign.



Then:
$$
begin{align*}
frac{arctan(cot(pi x))}{pi}
&= frac{arctan(cot(pi s(a + b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi a + pi b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdotcot(pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(frac{pi}{2} - pi b))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(scdottan(pi(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)))}{pi}\[1em]
&= frac{pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)}{pi}\[1em]
&= sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[1em]
end{align*}
$$



Note that we can assert that $arctan(tan(pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)) = pi s(frac{1}{2} - b)$ without issues only because



$$
begin{alignat*}{5}
0 && quad leq && b quad && < quad && 1 &&implies\[0.5em]
0 && quad geq && -b quad && > quad && -1 &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{1}{2} && quad geq && quad frac{1}{2} - b quad && > quad && -frac{1}{2} &&implies\[0.5em]
frac{pi}{2} && quad geq && piBigg(frac{1}{2} - bBigg) quad && > quad && -frac{pi}{2} &&\
end{alignat*}
$$



$arctan(tan(x)) = x$ only holds for $x$ in that range. For example, $arctan(tan(x)) = x - pi$ if $frac{pi}{2} < x < pi$.



With that said...
$$
begin{align*}
lfloor x rfloor &= x - frac{1}{2} + sbigg(frac{1}{2} - bbigg)\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b) - frac{1 - s}{2} - sb\[0.5em]
&= s(a + b - b) - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
&= sa - frac{1 - s}{2}\[0.5em]
end{align*}
$$



If $s=1$, $lfloor xrfloor = a - frac{1 - 1}{2} = a$.



If $s=-1$, $lfloor xrfloor = -a - frac{1 + 1}{2} = -a - 1 = -(a + 1)$.



This works because $lfloor pm y.uwv rfloor$ is y if the number is positive, and $-(y + 1)$ if the number is negative. e.g. $lfloor 1.2rfloor = 1$ but $lfloor -1.2rfloor = -2$.



Proving that your $ceil$ function works should go about the same way.



I realize I am three years late to this but I initially was going to post my own trigonometric floor:



$$
lfloor x rfloor = x - text{frac}(x)\[1.4em]
%
text{frac}(x) = text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)Bigg( frac{cos^{-1}(cos(2pi x))}{2pi} - frac{1}{2} Bigg) + frac{1}{2}left| text{sgn}Big(sin(2pi x)Big)right|\[1.4em]
%
text{sgn}(x) = frac{1}{2}Bigg(frac{cot^{-1}(x) - cot^{-1}(-x)}{big|cot^{-1}(x)big|}Bigg)
$$



But yours seems a bit simpler.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 7 '18 at 4:53

























answered Jul 6 '18 at 1:15









phicrphicr

1438




1438












  • $begingroup$
    This is excellent and much better defined, thank you for sharing +1
    $endgroup$
    – Albert Renshaw
    Dec 4 '18 at 21:10


















  • $begingroup$
    This is excellent and much better defined, thank you for sharing +1
    $endgroup$
    – Albert Renshaw
    Dec 4 '18 at 21:10
















$begingroup$
This is excellent and much better defined, thank you for sharing +1
$endgroup$
– Albert Renshaw
Dec 4 '18 at 21:10




$begingroup$
This is excellent and much better defined, thank you for sharing +1
$endgroup$
– Albert Renshaw
Dec 4 '18 at 21:10


















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