Suppose we have continuous $f_{n} : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ converging to $f : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$...












1












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This question already has an answer here:




  • $f$ is continuous, if $f_n$ continuous and $f_nto f$ uniformly

    2 answers





Suppose we have continuous $f_{n} : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$
converging to $f : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ uniformly on $D$. Then,
is $f$ continuous?




I know that if we have $f_{n}$ converging to $f$ and $f_{n}$ are all continuous then it is not necessary for $f$ to be continuous. This is shown by



$$x^{n} hspace{1cm} 0 < x leq 1 $$



for $n geq 0$. But, it is the uniformly part that gets me here. Is this statement true?










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Dec 14 '18 at 3:03


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it's a classical theorem in early Analysis/Topology courses.
    $endgroup$
    – Saucy O'Path
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:06












  • $begingroup$
    Is $D$ a metric space?
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know what a metric space is. $D$ is a set. $D subseteq mathbb{R}$
    $endgroup$
    – joseph
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:09










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, great. Your question may seem a lot more general, so you may want to include that in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:10
















1












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • $f$ is continuous, if $f_n$ continuous and $f_nto f$ uniformly

    2 answers





Suppose we have continuous $f_{n} : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$
converging to $f : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ uniformly on $D$. Then,
is $f$ continuous?




I know that if we have $f_{n}$ converging to $f$ and $f_{n}$ are all continuous then it is not necessary for $f$ to be continuous. This is shown by



$$x^{n} hspace{1cm} 0 < x leq 1 $$



for $n geq 0$. But, it is the uniformly part that gets me here. Is this statement true?










share|cite|improve this question









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marked as duplicate by RRL real-analysis
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Dec 14 '18 at 3:03


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it's a classical theorem in early Analysis/Topology courses.
    $endgroup$
    – Saucy O'Path
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:06












  • $begingroup$
    Is $D$ a metric space?
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know what a metric space is. $D$ is a set. $D subseteq mathbb{R}$
    $endgroup$
    – joseph
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:09










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, great. Your question may seem a lot more general, so you may want to include that in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:10














1












1








1





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • $f$ is continuous, if $f_n$ continuous and $f_nto f$ uniformly

    2 answers





Suppose we have continuous $f_{n} : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$
converging to $f : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ uniformly on $D$. Then,
is $f$ continuous?




I know that if we have $f_{n}$ converging to $f$ and $f_{n}$ are all continuous then it is not necessary for $f$ to be continuous. This is shown by



$$x^{n} hspace{1cm} 0 < x leq 1 $$



for $n geq 0$. But, it is the uniformly part that gets me here. Is this statement true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • $f$ is continuous, if $f_n$ continuous and $f_nto f$ uniformly

    2 answers





Suppose we have continuous $f_{n} : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$
converging to $f : D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ uniformly on $D$. Then,
is $f$ continuous?




I know that if we have $f_{n}$ converging to $f$ and $f_{n}$ are all continuous then it is not necessary for $f$ to be continuous. This is shown by



$$x^{n} hspace{1cm} 0 < x leq 1 $$



for $n geq 0$. But, it is the uniformly part that gets me here. Is this statement true?





This question already has an answer here:




  • $f$ is continuous, if $f_n$ continuous and $f_nto f$ uniformly

    2 answers








real-analysis uniform-convergence






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share|cite|improve this question











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asked Dec 14 '18 at 1:02









josephjoseph

496111




496111




marked as duplicate by RRL real-analysis
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Dec 14 '18 at 3:03


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by RRL real-analysis
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Dec 14 '18 at 3:03


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it's a classical theorem in early Analysis/Topology courses.
    $endgroup$
    – Saucy O'Path
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:06












  • $begingroup$
    Is $D$ a metric space?
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know what a metric space is. $D$ is a set. $D subseteq mathbb{R}$
    $endgroup$
    – joseph
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:09










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, great. Your question may seem a lot more general, so you may want to include that in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:10


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it's a classical theorem in early Analysis/Topology courses.
    $endgroup$
    – Saucy O'Path
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:06












  • $begingroup$
    Is $D$ a metric space?
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    I don't know what a metric space is. $D$ is a set. $D subseteq mathbb{R}$
    $endgroup$
    – joseph
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:09










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, great. Your question may seem a lot more general, so you may want to include that in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 14 '18 at 1:10
















$begingroup$
Yes, it's a classical theorem in early Analysis/Topology courses.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 14 '18 at 1:06






$begingroup$
Yes, it's a classical theorem in early Analysis/Topology courses.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 14 '18 at 1:06














$begingroup$
Is $D$ a metric space?
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
Dec 14 '18 at 1:08




$begingroup$
Is $D$ a metric space?
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
Dec 14 '18 at 1:08












$begingroup$
I don't know what a metric space is. $D$ is a set. $D subseteq mathbb{R}$
$endgroup$
– joseph
Dec 14 '18 at 1:09




$begingroup$
I don't know what a metric space is. $D$ is a set. $D subseteq mathbb{R}$
$endgroup$
– joseph
Dec 14 '18 at 1:09












$begingroup$
Okay, great. Your question may seem a lot more general, so you may want to include that in the post.
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
Dec 14 '18 at 1:10




$begingroup$
Okay, great. Your question may seem a lot more general, so you may want to include that in the post.
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
Dec 14 '18 at 1:10










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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0












$begingroup$

Fix $d in D$. Now, it is always true that



$$
begin{align}
|f(d) - f(y)| &leq |f(d) - f_n(d)| + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)| + |f_n(y)-f(y)| \ &leq 2d(f_n,f) + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)|. tag{1}
end{align}
$$



You also know that $f_n to f$, that is $d(f_n,f) to 0$, and that each function $f_n$ is continuous. A solution follows, but I would encourage you to think about this for a while before reading it.




Let $varepsilon > 0$. Now, there exists $m gg 1$ such that $2d(f_n,f) < varepsilon/2$ when $n geq m$. Since $f_m$ is continuous, there exists $delta > 0$ such that $|d-y| < delta $ implies $|f_m(d)-f_m(y)| < varepsilon /2$. Thus, if $|d-y| < delta$, by $(1)$ when $n = m$, we have that $|f(d)-f(y)| < varepsilon$, and so $f$ is continuous.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    Fix $d in D$. Now, it is always true that



    $$
    begin{align}
    |f(d) - f(y)| &leq |f(d) - f_n(d)| + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)| + |f_n(y)-f(y)| \ &leq 2d(f_n,f) + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)|. tag{1}
    end{align}
    $$



    You also know that $f_n to f$, that is $d(f_n,f) to 0$, and that each function $f_n$ is continuous. A solution follows, but I would encourage you to think about this for a while before reading it.




    Let $varepsilon > 0$. Now, there exists $m gg 1$ such that $2d(f_n,f) < varepsilon/2$ when $n geq m$. Since $f_m$ is continuous, there exists $delta > 0$ such that $|d-y| < delta $ implies $|f_m(d)-f_m(y)| < varepsilon /2$. Thus, if $|d-y| < delta$, by $(1)$ when $n = m$, we have that $|f(d)-f(y)| < varepsilon$, and so $f$ is continuous.







    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Fix $d in D$. Now, it is always true that



      $$
      begin{align}
      |f(d) - f(y)| &leq |f(d) - f_n(d)| + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)| + |f_n(y)-f(y)| \ &leq 2d(f_n,f) + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)|. tag{1}
      end{align}
      $$



      You also know that $f_n to f$, that is $d(f_n,f) to 0$, and that each function $f_n$ is continuous. A solution follows, but I would encourage you to think about this for a while before reading it.




      Let $varepsilon > 0$. Now, there exists $m gg 1$ such that $2d(f_n,f) < varepsilon/2$ when $n geq m$. Since $f_m$ is continuous, there exists $delta > 0$ such that $|d-y| < delta $ implies $|f_m(d)-f_m(y)| < varepsilon /2$. Thus, if $|d-y| < delta$, by $(1)$ when $n = m$, we have that $|f(d)-f(y)| < varepsilon$, and so $f$ is continuous.







      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Fix $d in D$. Now, it is always true that



        $$
        begin{align}
        |f(d) - f(y)| &leq |f(d) - f_n(d)| + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)| + |f_n(y)-f(y)| \ &leq 2d(f_n,f) + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)|. tag{1}
        end{align}
        $$



        You also know that $f_n to f$, that is $d(f_n,f) to 0$, and that each function $f_n$ is continuous. A solution follows, but I would encourage you to think about this for a while before reading it.




        Let $varepsilon > 0$. Now, there exists $m gg 1$ such that $2d(f_n,f) < varepsilon/2$ when $n geq m$. Since $f_m$ is continuous, there exists $delta > 0$ such that $|d-y| < delta $ implies $|f_m(d)-f_m(y)| < varepsilon /2$. Thus, if $|d-y| < delta$, by $(1)$ when $n = m$, we have that $|f(d)-f(y)| < varepsilon$, and so $f$ is continuous.







        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Fix $d in D$. Now, it is always true that



        $$
        begin{align}
        |f(d) - f(y)| &leq |f(d) - f_n(d)| + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)| + |f_n(y)-f(y)| \ &leq 2d(f_n,f) + |f_n(d)-f_n(y)|. tag{1}
        end{align}
        $$



        You also know that $f_n to f$, that is $d(f_n,f) to 0$, and that each function $f_n$ is continuous. A solution follows, but I would encourage you to think about this for a while before reading it.




        Let $varepsilon > 0$. Now, there exists $m gg 1$ such that $2d(f_n,f) < varepsilon/2$ when $n geq m$. Since $f_m$ is continuous, there exists $delta > 0$ such that $|d-y| < delta $ implies $|f_m(d)-f_m(y)| < varepsilon /2$. Thus, if $|d-y| < delta$, by $(1)$ when $n = m$, we have that $|f(d)-f(y)| < varepsilon$, and so $f$ is continuous.








        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 14 '18 at 1:14









        Guido A.Guido A.

        7,7231730




        7,7231730















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