weakly convergence of periodic functions












4












$begingroup$



Let $ displaystyle I subset mathbb R$ be a bounded interval and
$displaystyle 1 < p leq infty $. Let $ f displaystyle in L^infty
(mathbb R) $ periodic function with $displaystyle f(x+T)=f(x), quad
forall x in I$. Consider now the sequence of functions
$displaystyle f_n (x):= f(nx), quad n in mathbb N$. Prove that:



(i) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly
in $displaystyle L^p (I)$ forall $ displaystyle 1<p < infty $.



(ii) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly*
in $displaystyle L^infty (I)$.




I thought the following about the first one: First of all we can assume that $displaystyle frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$, otherwise work with $displaystyle f(x) - frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$. Consider now an arbitrary compact sub-interval of $I$, i.e., $displaystyle [a,b] subset I$ . Then we have that:



$displaystyle int_a^b f_n(x) dx= int_a^b f(nx) dx = frac{1}{n} int_{na}^{nb} f(x) dx = frac{1}{n} left( F(nb) -F(na) right) to 0 $, as $n to infty$



where $displaystyle F(x) = int_0^x f(t) dt , quad x in I$.



Since the sub-interval $[a,b]$ was rbitrary, we can conclude that for every step function $phi$ we have that: $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) phi (x) dx to 0$ , as $n to infty $. Because the step functions are dense in $L^q(I)$ (is the dual space of $L^p(I)$) we have that $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) g(x) dx to 0$ as $n to infty $, for every $g in L^q(I)$.



From here how can I get the desired result?



Also I would like if it is possible some hints for the (ii)



Any help would be really appreciated.



Thakning in advance.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    4












    $begingroup$



    Let $ displaystyle I subset mathbb R$ be a bounded interval and
    $displaystyle 1 < p leq infty $. Let $ f displaystyle in L^infty
    (mathbb R) $ periodic function with $displaystyle f(x+T)=f(x), quad
    forall x in I$. Consider now the sequence of functions
    $displaystyle f_n (x):= f(nx), quad n in mathbb N$. Prove that:



    (i) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly
    in $displaystyle L^p (I)$ forall $ displaystyle 1<p < infty $.



    (ii) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly*
    in $displaystyle L^infty (I)$.




    I thought the following about the first one: First of all we can assume that $displaystyle frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$, otherwise work with $displaystyle f(x) - frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$. Consider now an arbitrary compact sub-interval of $I$, i.e., $displaystyle [a,b] subset I$ . Then we have that:



    $displaystyle int_a^b f_n(x) dx= int_a^b f(nx) dx = frac{1}{n} int_{na}^{nb} f(x) dx = frac{1}{n} left( F(nb) -F(na) right) to 0 $, as $n to infty$



    where $displaystyle F(x) = int_0^x f(t) dt , quad x in I$.



    Since the sub-interval $[a,b]$ was rbitrary, we can conclude that for every step function $phi$ we have that: $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) phi (x) dx to 0$ , as $n to infty $. Because the step functions are dense in $L^q(I)$ (is the dual space of $L^p(I)$) we have that $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) g(x) dx to 0$ as $n to infty $, for every $g in L^q(I)$.



    From here how can I get the desired result?



    Also I would like if it is possible some hints for the (ii)



    Any help would be really appreciated.



    Thakning in advance.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      4












      4








      4


      1



      $begingroup$



      Let $ displaystyle I subset mathbb R$ be a bounded interval and
      $displaystyle 1 < p leq infty $. Let $ f displaystyle in L^infty
      (mathbb R) $ periodic function with $displaystyle f(x+T)=f(x), quad
      forall x in I$. Consider now the sequence of functions
      $displaystyle f_n (x):= f(nx), quad n in mathbb N$. Prove that:



      (i) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly
      in $displaystyle L^p (I)$ forall $ displaystyle 1<p < infty $.



      (ii) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly*
      in $displaystyle L^infty (I)$.




      I thought the following about the first one: First of all we can assume that $displaystyle frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$, otherwise work with $displaystyle f(x) - frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$. Consider now an arbitrary compact sub-interval of $I$, i.e., $displaystyle [a,b] subset I$ . Then we have that:



      $displaystyle int_a^b f_n(x) dx= int_a^b f(nx) dx = frac{1}{n} int_{na}^{nb} f(x) dx = frac{1}{n} left( F(nb) -F(na) right) to 0 $, as $n to infty$



      where $displaystyle F(x) = int_0^x f(t) dt , quad x in I$.



      Since the sub-interval $[a,b]$ was rbitrary, we can conclude that for every step function $phi$ we have that: $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) phi (x) dx to 0$ , as $n to infty $. Because the step functions are dense in $L^q(I)$ (is the dual space of $L^p(I)$) we have that $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) g(x) dx to 0$ as $n to infty $, for every $g in L^q(I)$.



      From here how can I get the desired result?



      Also I would like if it is possible some hints for the (ii)



      Any help would be really appreciated.



      Thakning in advance.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Let $ displaystyle I subset mathbb R$ be a bounded interval and
      $displaystyle 1 < p leq infty $. Let $ f displaystyle in L^infty
      (mathbb R) $ periodic function with $displaystyle f(x+T)=f(x), quad
      forall x in I$. Consider now the sequence of functions
      $displaystyle f_n (x):= f(nx), quad n in mathbb N$. Prove that:



      (i) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly
      in $displaystyle L^p (I)$ forall $ displaystyle 1<p < infty $.



      (ii) $displaystyle f_n to frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx $ weakly*
      in $displaystyle L^infty (I)$.




      I thought the following about the first one: First of all we can assume that $displaystyle frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$, otherwise work with $displaystyle f(x) - frac{1}{T} int_0^T f(x) dx =0$. Consider now an arbitrary compact sub-interval of $I$, i.e., $displaystyle [a,b] subset I$ . Then we have that:



      $displaystyle int_a^b f_n(x) dx= int_a^b f(nx) dx = frac{1}{n} int_{na}^{nb} f(x) dx = frac{1}{n} left( F(nb) -F(na) right) to 0 $, as $n to infty$



      where $displaystyle F(x) = int_0^x f(t) dt , quad x in I$.



      Since the sub-interval $[a,b]$ was rbitrary, we can conclude that for every step function $phi$ we have that: $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) phi (x) dx to 0$ , as $n to infty $. Because the step functions are dense in $L^q(I)$ (is the dual space of $L^p(I)$) we have that $displaystyle int_I f_n(x) g(x) dx to 0$ as $n to infty $, for every $g in L^q(I)$.



      From here how can I get the desired result?



      Also I would like if it is possible some hints for the (ii)



      Any help would be really appreciated.



      Thakning in advance.







      real-analysis functional-analysis weak-convergence






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 13 '14 at 15:46









      passengerpassenger

      1,92711625




      1,92711625






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Well it merely derives from this integral involving a periodic function we have that



          for all continuous function $gin C(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx= frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$
          Where $(cdot,cdot)$ is the dual pairing between $L^p(I)$ and $L^{p'}(I)= (L^{p}(I))'$ for $1<p<infty$, for $L^1(I)$ and $(L^1(I))'= L^infty(I)$ and similarly for $L^infty(I)$ and $L^1(I)subset (L^infty(I))'$
          see here and we denote the mean of $f$ by,
          $$bar{f} =frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dx $$




          For general function $gin L^{p'}(I)$ the result is merely just a consequence of density of smooth functions in $L^p$ as displayed below.






          Now by density argument we know if $gin L^{p'}(I)$ then for fixed $varepsilon>0$ there is $g_varepsilon in C(I)$ such that $$ |g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}<varepsilon$$



          since $f$ is continuous and periodic, it is bounded and therefoer By Holder inequality we have,
          $$begin{align}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| &=|(f_n-bar{f},g)|\&le|(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)|+|(f_n-bar{f},g-g_varepsilon)|\&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +|f_n-bar{f}|_{p }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon end{align}$$



          however, we have already prove that
          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g_varepsilon)Longleftrightarrow lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n-bar{f}, g_varepsilon)=0 $$
          we get



          $$limsup_{ntoinfty}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| le(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon $$
          then letting $varepsilon to0$ one obtains



          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g) $$



          that is for all $gin L^{p'}(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you very much for your reply! I just saw your answer.
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:20










          • $begingroup$
            @passenger your question have been here since couple of year if ever I saw it before I
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:22










          • $begingroup$
            I know. I forgot it completely, that's why I was surprised to see an answer. Anyway's, thank's once more for your time!
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:26










          • $begingroup$
            Why in $lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$, the second equality follows?
            $endgroup$
            – Zack Ni
            Dec 18 '18 at 2:22










          • $begingroup$
            @ZackNi check the link before. the answer is there. math.stackexchange.com/questions/105258/…
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Dec 19 '18 at 6:57











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Well it merely derives from this integral involving a periodic function we have that



          for all continuous function $gin C(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx= frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$
          Where $(cdot,cdot)$ is the dual pairing between $L^p(I)$ and $L^{p'}(I)= (L^{p}(I))'$ for $1<p<infty$, for $L^1(I)$ and $(L^1(I))'= L^infty(I)$ and similarly for $L^infty(I)$ and $L^1(I)subset (L^infty(I))'$
          see here and we denote the mean of $f$ by,
          $$bar{f} =frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dx $$




          For general function $gin L^{p'}(I)$ the result is merely just a consequence of density of smooth functions in $L^p$ as displayed below.






          Now by density argument we know if $gin L^{p'}(I)$ then for fixed $varepsilon>0$ there is $g_varepsilon in C(I)$ such that $$ |g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}<varepsilon$$



          since $f$ is continuous and periodic, it is bounded and therefoer By Holder inequality we have,
          $$begin{align}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| &=|(f_n-bar{f},g)|\&le|(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)|+|(f_n-bar{f},g-g_varepsilon)|\&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +|f_n-bar{f}|_{p }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon end{align}$$



          however, we have already prove that
          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g_varepsilon)Longleftrightarrow lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n-bar{f}, g_varepsilon)=0 $$
          we get



          $$limsup_{ntoinfty}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| le(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon $$
          then letting $varepsilon to0$ one obtains



          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g) $$



          that is for all $gin L^{p'}(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you very much for your reply! I just saw your answer.
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:20










          • $begingroup$
            @passenger your question have been here since couple of year if ever I saw it before I
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:22










          • $begingroup$
            I know. I forgot it completely, that's why I was surprised to see an answer. Anyway's, thank's once more for your time!
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:26










          • $begingroup$
            Why in $lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$, the second equality follows?
            $endgroup$
            – Zack Ni
            Dec 18 '18 at 2:22










          • $begingroup$
            @ZackNi check the link before. the answer is there. math.stackexchange.com/questions/105258/…
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Dec 19 '18 at 6:57
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Well it merely derives from this integral involving a periodic function we have that



          for all continuous function $gin C(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx= frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$
          Where $(cdot,cdot)$ is the dual pairing between $L^p(I)$ and $L^{p'}(I)= (L^{p}(I))'$ for $1<p<infty$, for $L^1(I)$ and $(L^1(I))'= L^infty(I)$ and similarly for $L^infty(I)$ and $L^1(I)subset (L^infty(I))'$
          see here and we denote the mean of $f$ by,
          $$bar{f} =frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dx $$




          For general function $gin L^{p'}(I)$ the result is merely just a consequence of density of smooth functions in $L^p$ as displayed below.






          Now by density argument we know if $gin L^{p'}(I)$ then for fixed $varepsilon>0$ there is $g_varepsilon in C(I)$ such that $$ |g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}<varepsilon$$



          since $f$ is continuous and periodic, it is bounded and therefoer By Holder inequality we have,
          $$begin{align}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| &=|(f_n-bar{f},g)|\&le|(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)|+|(f_n-bar{f},g-g_varepsilon)|\&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +|f_n-bar{f}|_{p }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon end{align}$$



          however, we have already prove that
          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g_varepsilon)Longleftrightarrow lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n-bar{f}, g_varepsilon)=0 $$
          we get



          $$limsup_{ntoinfty}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| le(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon $$
          then letting $varepsilon to0$ one obtains



          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g) $$



          that is for all $gin L^{p'}(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you very much for your reply! I just saw your answer.
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:20










          • $begingroup$
            @passenger your question have been here since couple of year if ever I saw it before I
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:22










          • $begingroup$
            I know. I forgot it completely, that's why I was surprised to see an answer. Anyway's, thank's once more for your time!
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:26










          • $begingroup$
            Why in $lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$, the second equality follows?
            $endgroup$
            – Zack Ni
            Dec 18 '18 at 2:22










          • $begingroup$
            @ZackNi check the link before. the answer is there. math.stackexchange.com/questions/105258/…
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Dec 19 '18 at 6:57














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Well it merely derives from this integral involving a periodic function we have that



          for all continuous function $gin C(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx= frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$
          Where $(cdot,cdot)$ is the dual pairing between $L^p(I)$ and $L^{p'}(I)= (L^{p}(I))'$ for $1<p<infty$, for $L^1(I)$ and $(L^1(I))'= L^infty(I)$ and similarly for $L^infty(I)$ and $L^1(I)subset (L^infty(I))'$
          see here and we denote the mean of $f$ by,
          $$bar{f} =frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dx $$




          For general function $gin L^{p'}(I)$ the result is merely just a consequence of density of smooth functions in $L^p$ as displayed below.






          Now by density argument we know if $gin L^{p'}(I)$ then for fixed $varepsilon>0$ there is $g_varepsilon in C(I)$ such that $$ |g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}<varepsilon$$



          since $f$ is continuous and periodic, it is bounded and therefoer By Holder inequality we have,
          $$begin{align}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| &=|(f_n-bar{f},g)|\&le|(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)|+|(f_n-bar{f},g-g_varepsilon)|\&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +|f_n-bar{f}|_{p }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon end{align}$$



          however, we have already prove that
          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g_varepsilon)Longleftrightarrow lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n-bar{f}, g_varepsilon)=0 $$
          we get



          $$limsup_{ntoinfty}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| le(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon $$
          then letting $varepsilon to0$ one obtains



          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g) $$



          that is for all $gin L^{p'}(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Well it merely derives from this integral involving a periodic function we have that



          for all continuous function $gin C(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx= frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$
          Where $(cdot,cdot)$ is the dual pairing between $L^p(I)$ and $L^{p'}(I)= (L^{p}(I))'$ for $1<p<infty$, for $L^1(I)$ and $(L^1(I))'= L^infty(I)$ and similarly for $L^infty(I)$ and $L^1(I)subset (L^infty(I))'$
          see here and we denote the mean of $f$ by,
          $$bar{f} =frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dx $$




          For general function $gin L^{p'}(I)$ the result is merely just a consequence of density of smooth functions in $L^p$ as displayed below.






          Now by density argument we know if $gin L^{p'}(I)$ then for fixed $varepsilon>0$ there is $g_varepsilon in C(I)$ such that $$ |g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}<varepsilon$$



          since $f$ is continuous and periodic, it is bounded and therefoer By Holder inequality we have,
          $$begin{align}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| &=|(f_n-bar{f},g)|\&le|(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)|+|(f_n-bar{f},g-g_varepsilon)|\&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +|f_n-bar{f}|_{p }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }|g-g_varepsilon|_{p'}
          \&le |(f_n-bar{f},g_varepsilon)| +(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon end{align}$$



          however, we have already prove that
          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g_varepsilon)Longleftrightarrow lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n-bar{f}, g_varepsilon)=0 $$
          we get



          $$limsup_{ntoinfty}|(f_n,g)-(bar{f},g)| le(1+T^{1/p})|f|_{infty }varepsilon $$
          then letting $varepsilon to0$ one obtains



          $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g) =(bar{f},g) $$



          that is for all $gin L^{p'}(I)$ we have $$lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 19 '18 at 6:58

























          answered Jan 16 '18 at 19:58









          Guy FsoneGuy Fsone

          17.3k43074




          17.3k43074












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you very much for your reply! I just saw your answer.
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:20










          • $begingroup$
            @passenger your question have been here since couple of year if ever I saw it before I
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:22










          • $begingroup$
            I know. I forgot it completely, that's why I was surprised to see an answer. Anyway's, thank's once more for your time!
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:26










          • $begingroup$
            Why in $lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$, the second equality follows?
            $endgroup$
            – Zack Ni
            Dec 18 '18 at 2:22










          • $begingroup$
            @ZackNi check the link before. the answer is there. math.stackexchange.com/questions/105258/…
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Dec 19 '18 at 6:57


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you very much for your reply! I just saw your answer.
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:20










          • $begingroup$
            @passenger your question have been here since couple of year if ever I saw it before I
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:22










          • $begingroup$
            I know. I forgot it completely, that's why I was surprised to see an answer. Anyway's, thank's once more for your time!
            $endgroup$
            – passenger
            Jan 22 '18 at 21:26










          • $begingroup$
            Why in $lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$, the second equality follows?
            $endgroup$
            – Zack Ni
            Dec 18 '18 at 2:22










          • $begingroup$
            @ZackNi check the link before. the answer is there. math.stackexchange.com/questions/105258/…
            $endgroup$
            – Guy Fsone
            Dec 19 '18 at 6:57
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you very much for your reply! I just saw your answer.
          $endgroup$
          – passenger
          Jan 22 '18 at 21:20




          $begingroup$
          Thank you very much for your reply! I just saw your answer.
          $endgroup$
          – passenger
          Jan 22 '18 at 21:20












          $begingroup$
          @passenger your question have been here since couple of year if ever I saw it before I
          $endgroup$
          – Guy Fsone
          Jan 22 '18 at 21:22




          $begingroup$
          @passenger your question have been here since couple of year if ever I saw it before I
          $endgroup$
          – Guy Fsone
          Jan 22 '18 at 21:22












          $begingroup$
          I know. I forgot it completely, that's why I was surprised to see an answer. Anyway's, thank's once more for your time!
          $endgroup$
          – passenger
          Jan 22 '18 at 21:26




          $begingroup$
          I know. I forgot it completely, that's why I was surprised to see an answer. Anyway's, thank's once more for your time!
          $endgroup$
          – passenger
          Jan 22 '18 at 21:26












          $begingroup$
          Why in $lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$, the second equality follows?
          $endgroup$
          – Zack Ni
          Dec 18 '18 at 2:22




          $begingroup$
          Why in $lim_{ntoinfty}(f_n,g)= int_0^Tf(nx)g(x)dx=lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{T}int_0^Tf(x)dxcdotint_0^Tg(x)dx =(bar{f},g)$, the second equality follows?
          $endgroup$
          – Zack Ni
          Dec 18 '18 at 2:22












          $begingroup$
          @ZackNi check the link before. the answer is there. math.stackexchange.com/questions/105258/…
          $endgroup$
          – Guy Fsone
          Dec 19 '18 at 6:57




          $begingroup$
          @ZackNi check the link before. the answer is there. math.stackexchange.com/questions/105258/…
          $endgroup$
          – Guy Fsone
          Dec 19 '18 at 6:57


















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