Continuous function $ f:operatorname{SO}(3) to operatorname{SU}(2)$












1












$begingroup$


Given the usual surjective homomorphism $ Φ:operatorname{SU}(2)to operatorname{SO}(3)$ that maps a quaternion to a rotation matrix,



Does there exist a continuous function $f:operatorname{SO}(3)to operatorname{SU}(2)$
such that $ Phi circ f = operatorname{Id}$ on $operatorname{SO}(3)$?



If yes, what would be this map be?



Thank you










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No. It’s like trying to define a continuous square root in the complex plane. An element of SO(3) has an axis and an angle of rotation. The corresponding element of SU(2) has one half the angle.
    $endgroup$
    – Charlie Frohman
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:27


















1












$begingroup$


Given the usual surjective homomorphism $ Φ:operatorname{SU}(2)to operatorname{SO}(3)$ that maps a quaternion to a rotation matrix,



Does there exist a continuous function $f:operatorname{SO}(3)to operatorname{SU}(2)$
such that $ Phi circ f = operatorname{Id}$ on $operatorname{SO}(3)$?



If yes, what would be this map be?



Thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No. It’s like trying to define a continuous square root in the complex plane. An element of SO(3) has an axis and an angle of rotation. The corresponding element of SU(2) has one half the angle.
    $endgroup$
    – Charlie Frohman
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:27
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


Given the usual surjective homomorphism $ Φ:operatorname{SU}(2)to operatorname{SO}(3)$ that maps a quaternion to a rotation matrix,



Does there exist a continuous function $f:operatorname{SO}(3)to operatorname{SU}(2)$
such that $ Phi circ f = operatorname{Id}$ on $operatorname{SO}(3)$?



If yes, what would be this map be?



Thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Given the usual surjective homomorphism $ Φ:operatorname{SU}(2)to operatorname{SO}(3)$ that maps a quaternion to a rotation matrix,



Does there exist a continuous function $f:operatorname{SO}(3)to operatorname{SU}(2)$
such that $ Phi circ f = operatorname{Id}$ on $operatorname{SO}(3)$?



If yes, what would be this map be?



Thank you







general-topology lie-groups smooth-manifolds






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edited Dec 4 '18 at 19:07







kot

















asked Dec 2 '18 at 18:58









kotkot

808




808








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No. It’s like trying to define a continuous square root in the complex plane. An element of SO(3) has an axis and an angle of rotation. The corresponding element of SU(2) has one half the angle.
    $endgroup$
    – Charlie Frohman
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:27
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No. It’s like trying to define a continuous square root in the complex plane. An element of SO(3) has an axis and an angle of rotation. The corresponding element of SU(2) has one half the angle.
    $endgroup$
    – Charlie Frohman
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:27










2




2




$begingroup$
No. It’s like trying to define a continuous square root in the complex plane. An element of SO(3) has an axis and an angle of rotation. The corresponding element of SU(2) has one half the angle.
$endgroup$
– Charlie Frohman
Dec 2 '18 at 19:27






$begingroup$
No. It’s like trying to define a continuous square root in the complex plane. An element of SO(3) has an axis and an angle of rotation. The corresponding element of SU(2) has one half the angle.
$endgroup$
– Charlie Frohman
Dec 2 '18 at 19:27












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

No. A map $f$ as in your question would induce an embedding of fundamental groups $f_* :pi_1(text{SO(3)}) to pi_1(text{SU}(2))$.



If you look at Fundamental group of $SO(3)$, you will see that $pi_1(text{SU}(2)) = 0$, while $pi_1(text{SO(3)}) = mathbb{Z}_2$. Therefore $f$ cannot exist.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks @Paul Frost
    $endgroup$
    – kot
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:44



















0












$begingroup$

Here is another proof. It is known that $Phi$ is a covering projection with two sheets. The map $f$ would be a section of $Phi$, but this would imply that $Phi$ is a homeomorphism. See If a covering map has a section, is it a $1$-fold cover?.






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

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    active

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    4












    $begingroup$

    No. A map $f$ as in your question would induce an embedding of fundamental groups $f_* :pi_1(text{SO(3)}) to pi_1(text{SU}(2))$.



    If you look at Fundamental group of $SO(3)$, you will see that $pi_1(text{SU}(2)) = 0$, while $pi_1(text{SO(3)}) = mathbb{Z}_2$. Therefore $f$ cannot exist.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks @Paul Frost
      $endgroup$
      – kot
      Dec 2 '18 at 19:44
















    4












    $begingroup$

    No. A map $f$ as in your question would induce an embedding of fundamental groups $f_* :pi_1(text{SO(3)}) to pi_1(text{SU}(2))$.



    If you look at Fundamental group of $SO(3)$, you will see that $pi_1(text{SU}(2)) = 0$, while $pi_1(text{SO(3)}) = mathbb{Z}_2$. Therefore $f$ cannot exist.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks @Paul Frost
      $endgroup$
      – kot
      Dec 2 '18 at 19:44














    4












    4








    4





    $begingroup$

    No. A map $f$ as in your question would induce an embedding of fundamental groups $f_* :pi_1(text{SO(3)}) to pi_1(text{SU}(2))$.



    If you look at Fundamental group of $SO(3)$, you will see that $pi_1(text{SU}(2)) = 0$, while $pi_1(text{SO(3)}) = mathbb{Z}_2$. Therefore $f$ cannot exist.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    No. A map $f$ as in your question would induce an embedding of fundamental groups $f_* :pi_1(text{SO(3)}) to pi_1(text{SU}(2))$.



    If you look at Fundamental group of $SO(3)$, you will see that $pi_1(text{SU}(2)) = 0$, while $pi_1(text{SO(3)}) = mathbb{Z}_2$. Therefore $f$ cannot exist.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Dec 2 '18 at 19:43









    Paul FrostPaul Frost

    10k3932




    10k3932












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks @Paul Frost
      $endgroup$
      – kot
      Dec 2 '18 at 19:44


















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks @Paul Frost
      $endgroup$
      – kot
      Dec 2 '18 at 19:44
















    $begingroup$
    Thanks @Paul Frost
    $endgroup$
    – kot
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:44




    $begingroup$
    Thanks @Paul Frost
    $endgroup$
    – kot
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:44











    0












    $begingroup$

    Here is another proof. It is known that $Phi$ is a covering projection with two sheets. The map $f$ would be a section of $Phi$, but this would imply that $Phi$ is a homeomorphism. See If a covering map has a section, is it a $1$-fold cover?.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Here is another proof. It is known that $Phi$ is a covering projection with two sheets. The map $f$ would be a section of $Phi$, but this would imply that $Phi$ is a homeomorphism. See If a covering map has a section, is it a $1$-fold cover?.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Here is another proof. It is known that $Phi$ is a covering projection with two sheets. The map $f$ would be a section of $Phi$, but this would imply that $Phi$ is a homeomorphism. See If a covering map has a section, is it a $1$-fold cover?.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Here is another proof. It is known that $Phi$ is a covering projection with two sheets. The map $f$ would be a section of $Phi$, but this would imply that $Phi$ is a homeomorphism. See If a covering map has a section, is it a $1$-fold cover?.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 12 at 13:09









        Paul FrostPaul Frost

        10k3932




        10k3932






























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