Is the product of two Smith Normal Forms a the Smith normal form of the product?












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Suppose A and B are square matrices of the same size over a PID R. Does the Smith Normal form of AB equal the product of the Smith normal form of A and B?
I think this should be false. However, I can't quite find an example.










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is false. Try $A = begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 2 end{pmatrix}$ and $B = begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{pmatrix}$. Their Smith normal forms are both $A$, but their product's Smith normal form is not $A^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – darij grinberg
    Dec 2 '18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thanks a lot.
    $endgroup$
    – justanothermathstudent
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:28
















0












$begingroup$


Suppose A and B are square matrices of the same size over a PID R. Does the Smith Normal form of AB equal the product of the Smith normal form of A and B?
I think this should be false. However, I can't quite find an example.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is false. Try $A = begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 2 end{pmatrix}$ and $B = begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{pmatrix}$. Their Smith normal forms are both $A$, but their product's Smith normal form is not $A^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – darij grinberg
    Dec 2 '18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thanks a lot.
    $endgroup$
    – justanothermathstudent
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:28














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Suppose A and B are square matrices of the same size over a PID R. Does the Smith Normal form of AB equal the product of the Smith normal form of A and B?
I think this should be false. However, I can't quite find an example.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Suppose A and B are square matrices of the same size over a PID R. Does the Smith Normal form of AB equal the product of the Smith normal form of A and B?
I think this should be false. However, I can't quite find an example.







modules principal-ideal-domains smith-normal-form






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 2 '18 at 18:19









justanothermathstudentjustanothermathstudent

1018




1018








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is false. Try $A = begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 2 end{pmatrix}$ and $B = begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{pmatrix}$. Their Smith normal forms are both $A$, but their product's Smith normal form is not $A^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – darij grinberg
    Dec 2 '18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thanks a lot.
    $endgroup$
    – justanothermathstudent
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:28














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is false. Try $A = begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 2 end{pmatrix}$ and $B = begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{pmatrix}$. Their Smith normal forms are both $A$, but their product's Smith normal form is not $A^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – darij grinberg
    Dec 2 '18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thanks a lot.
    $endgroup$
    – justanothermathstudent
    Dec 2 '18 at 19:28








1




1




$begingroup$
It is false. Try $A = begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 2 end{pmatrix}$ and $B = begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{pmatrix}$. Their Smith normal forms are both $A$, but their product's Smith normal form is not $A^2$.
$endgroup$
– darij grinberg
Dec 2 '18 at 18:40




$begingroup$
It is false. Try $A = begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 2 end{pmatrix}$ and $B = begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{pmatrix}$. Their Smith normal forms are both $A$, but their product's Smith normal form is not $A^2$.
$endgroup$
– darij grinberg
Dec 2 '18 at 18:40












$begingroup$
Wow! Thanks a lot.
$endgroup$
– justanothermathstudent
Dec 2 '18 at 19:28




$begingroup$
Wow! Thanks a lot.
$endgroup$
– justanothermathstudent
Dec 2 '18 at 19:28










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