Does ${x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ has no accumulation point in $X?$












0














Let $(x_n),(y_n)$ be two sequences in a metrizable topological space $X$ such that none of $(x_n),(y_n)$ has cluster point in $X.$ Can we then conclude the set ${x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ has no accumulation point in $X?$



I think that should be correct yet I cannot get sure.



Please help.










share|cite|improve this question



























    0














    Let $(x_n),(y_n)$ be two sequences in a metrizable topological space $X$ such that none of $(x_n),(y_n)$ has cluster point in $X.$ Can we then conclude the set ${x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ has no accumulation point in $X?$



    I think that should be correct yet I cannot get sure.



    Please help.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0


      1





      Let $(x_n),(y_n)$ be two sequences in a metrizable topological space $X$ such that none of $(x_n),(y_n)$ has cluster point in $X.$ Can we then conclude the set ${x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ has no accumulation point in $X?$



      I think that should be correct yet I cannot get sure.



      Please help.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $(x_n),(y_n)$ be two sequences in a metrizable topological space $X$ such that none of $(x_n),(y_n)$ has cluster point in $X.$ Can we then conclude the set ${x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ has no accumulation point in $X?$



      I think that should be correct yet I cannot get sure.



      Please help.







      general-topology






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 28 '18 at 2:29









      Jave

      458114




      458114






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0














          Yes. Because if $z_0$ is an accumulation point for
          $A={x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ then there is a subsequence of
          $A$ like $(z_n)_{nin mathbb{N}} $ such that $z_nto z_0$. But either the set ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N}} cap {x_n:nge 1} $ have infinte elements or ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N} }cap {y_n:nge1}$ have infinite elements. So there is a subsequence of $(z_n)$ like $(z_{n_k})_{kin mathbb{N}} $ such that $(z_{n_k}) subseteq {x_n:nge1}$(or $subseteq {y_n:nge1} $). But $z_{n_k}to z_0$. So $z_0 $ is an accumulation point for ${x_n:nge1}$(or for ${y_n:nge1}$) and this is a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















            Your Answer





            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            });
            });
            }, "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function() {
            var channelOptions = {
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            };
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
            createEditor();
            });
            }
            else {
            createEditor();
            }
            });

            function createEditor() {
            StackExchange.prepareEditor({
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: true,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            imageUploader: {
            brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
            contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
            allowUrls: true
            },
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            });


            }
            });














            draft saved

            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3016623%2fdoes-x-nn-ge1-cup-y-nn-ge1-has-no-accumulation-point-in-x%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown

























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            0














            Yes. Because if $z_0$ is an accumulation point for
            $A={x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ then there is a subsequence of
            $A$ like $(z_n)_{nin mathbb{N}} $ such that $z_nto z_0$. But either the set ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N}} cap {x_n:nge 1} $ have infinte elements or ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N} }cap {y_n:nge1}$ have infinite elements. So there is a subsequence of $(z_n)$ like $(z_{n_k})_{kin mathbb{N}} $ such that $(z_{n_k}) subseteq {x_n:nge1}$(or $subseteq {y_n:nge1} $). But $z_{n_k}to z_0$. So $z_0 $ is an accumulation point for ${x_n:nge1}$(or for ${y_n:nge1}$) and this is a contradiction.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              0














              Yes. Because if $z_0$ is an accumulation point for
              $A={x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ then there is a subsequence of
              $A$ like $(z_n)_{nin mathbb{N}} $ such that $z_nto z_0$. But either the set ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N}} cap {x_n:nge 1} $ have infinte elements or ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N} }cap {y_n:nge1}$ have infinite elements. So there is a subsequence of $(z_n)$ like $(z_{n_k})_{kin mathbb{N}} $ such that $(z_{n_k}) subseteq {x_n:nge1}$(or $subseteq {y_n:nge1} $). But $z_{n_k}to z_0$. So $z_0 $ is an accumulation point for ${x_n:nge1}$(or for ${y_n:nge1}$) and this is a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                0












                0








                0






                Yes. Because if $z_0$ is an accumulation point for
                $A={x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ then there is a subsequence of
                $A$ like $(z_n)_{nin mathbb{N}} $ such that $z_nto z_0$. But either the set ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N}} cap {x_n:nge 1} $ have infinte elements or ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N} }cap {y_n:nge1}$ have infinite elements. So there is a subsequence of $(z_n)$ like $(z_{n_k})_{kin mathbb{N}} $ such that $(z_{n_k}) subseteq {x_n:nge1}$(or $subseteq {y_n:nge1} $). But $z_{n_k}to z_0$. So $z_0 $ is an accumulation point for ${x_n:nge1}$(or for ${y_n:nge1}$) and this is a contradiction.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Yes. Because if $z_0$ is an accumulation point for
                $A={x_n:nge1}cup{y_n:nge1}$ then there is a subsequence of
                $A$ like $(z_n)_{nin mathbb{N}} $ such that $z_nto z_0$. But either the set ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N}} cap {x_n:nge 1} $ have infinte elements or ${ z_n|nin mathbb{N} }cap {y_n:nge1}$ have infinite elements. So there is a subsequence of $(z_n)$ like $(z_{n_k})_{kin mathbb{N}} $ such that $(z_{n_k}) subseteq {x_n:nge1}$(or $subseteq {y_n:nge1} $). But $z_{n_k}to z_0$. So $z_0 $ is an accumulation point for ${x_n:nge1}$(or for ${y_n:nge1}$) and this is a contradiction.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 28 '18 at 3:36









                Darmad

                446112




                446112






























                    draft saved

                    draft discarded




















































                    Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                    • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                    But avoid



                    • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                    • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                    Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                    To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





                    Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


                    Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


                    • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                    But avoid



                    • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                    • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                    To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function () {
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3016623%2fdoes-x-nn-ge1-cup-y-nn-ge1-has-no-accumulation-point-in-x%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                    }
                    );

                    Post as a guest















                    Required, but never shown





















































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown

































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown







                    Popular posts from this blog

                    Bundesstraße 106

                    Verónica Boquete

                    Ida-Boy-Ed-Garten