Radius of convergence - ratio test for power series/real numbers
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Having trouble with when to apply the ratio test for power series and when to apply the ratio test for real numbers.
For example, find radius of convergence of these....
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}(-1)^n (x+3)^n$
For this I would use ratio test for power series and get radius of convergence = 1, fine.
but for
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$
Why do we need to use the ratio test for real numbers, and define for a fixed $x$? and why can't we use the ratio test for power series?
Is it because the $(x+1)^{2n}$ part is $2n$ and not $n$?
sequences-and-series analysis convergence power-series
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Having trouble with when to apply the ratio test for power series and when to apply the ratio test for real numbers.
For example, find radius of convergence of these....
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}(-1)^n (x+3)^n$
For this I would use ratio test for power series and get radius of convergence = 1, fine.
but for
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$
Why do we need to use the ratio test for real numbers, and define for a fixed $x$? and why can't we use the ratio test for power series?
Is it because the $(x+1)^{2n}$ part is $2n$ and not $n$?
sequences-and-series analysis convergence power-series
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2
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$sum_{n=0}^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$ is a power series in $(x+1)^2$. The ratio test for power series will work fine and give a radius of $0$. Latex is explained at [maa.org/latex/ltx-2.html].
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– Angela Richardson
May 15 '13 at 12:42
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but its 2n...so all the odd powers of x are missing. I think that's maybe why. radius is 0 though...
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– Tom
May 15 '13 at 13:02
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when coefficients are zero, you cannot put them in the denominator as required in the ratio test. In some cases (as here) you can recognize it as a power series in another variable and use the ratio test on that one.
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– GEdgar
May 15 '13 at 14:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Having trouble with when to apply the ratio test for power series and when to apply the ratio test for real numbers.
For example, find radius of convergence of these....
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}(-1)^n (x+3)^n$
For this I would use ratio test for power series and get radius of convergence = 1, fine.
but for
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$
Why do we need to use the ratio test for real numbers, and define for a fixed $x$? and why can't we use the ratio test for power series?
Is it because the $(x+1)^{2n}$ part is $2n$ and not $n$?
sequences-and-series analysis convergence power-series
$endgroup$
Having trouble with when to apply the ratio test for power series and when to apply the ratio test for real numbers.
For example, find radius of convergence of these....
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}(-1)^n (x+3)^n$
For this I would use ratio test for power series and get radius of convergence = 1, fine.
but for
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$
Why do we need to use the ratio test for real numbers, and define for a fixed $x$? and why can't we use the ratio test for power series?
Is it because the $(x+1)^{2n}$ part is $2n$ and not $n$?
sequences-and-series analysis convergence power-series
sequences-and-series analysis convergence power-series
edited Dec 1 '18 at 8:34
Martin Sleziak
44.7k8117272
44.7k8117272
asked May 15 '13 at 12:30
TomTom
1
1
2
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=0}^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$ is a power series in $(x+1)^2$. The ratio test for power series will work fine and give a radius of $0$. Latex is explained at [maa.org/latex/ltx-2.html].
$endgroup$
– Angela Richardson
May 15 '13 at 12:42
$begingroup$
but its 2n...so all the odd powers of x are missing. I think that's maybe why. radius is 0 though...
$endgroup$
– Tom
May 15 '13 at 13:02
$begingroup$
when coefficients are zero, you cannot put them in the denominator as required in the ratio test. In some cases (as here) you can recognize it as a power series in another variable and use the ratio test on that one.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
May 15 '13 at 14:07
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=0}^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$ is a power series in $(x+1)^2$. The ratio test for power series will work fine and give a radius of $0$. Latex is explained at [maa.org/latex/ltx-2.html].
$endgroup$
– Angela Richardson
May 15 '13 at 12:42
$begingroup$
but its 2n...so all the odd powers of x are missing. I think that's maybe why. radius is 0 though...
$endgroup$
– Tom
May 15 '13 at 13:02
$begingroup$
when coefficients are zero, you cannot put them in the denominator as required in the ratio test. In some cases (as here) you can recognize it as a power series in another variable and use the ratio test on that one.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
May 15 '13 at 14:07
2
2
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=0}^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$ is a power series in $(x+1)^2$. The ratio test for power series will work fine and give a radius of $0$. Latex is explained at [maa.org/latex/ltx-2.html].
$endgroup$
– Angela Richardson
May 15 '13 at 12:42
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=0}^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$ is a power series in $(x+1)^2$. The ratio test for power series will work fine and give a radius of $0$. Latex is explained at [maa.org/latex/ltx-2.html].
$endgroup$
– Angela Richardson
May 15 '13 at 12:42
$begingroup$
but its 2n...so all the odd powers of x are missing. I think that's maybe why. radius is 0 though...
$endgroup$
– Tom
May 15 '13 at 13:02
$begingroup$
but its 2n...so all the odd powers of x are missing. I think that's maybe why. radius is 0 though...
$endgroup$
– Tom
May 15 '13 at 13:02
$begingroup$
when coefficients are zero, you cannot put them in the denominator as required in the ratio test. In some cases (as here) you can recognize it as a power series in another variable and use the ratio test on that one.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
May 15 '13 at 14:07
$begingroup$
when coefficients are zero, you cannot put them in the denominator as required in the ratio test. In some cases (as here) you can recognize it as a power series in another variable and use the ratio test on that one.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
May 15 '13 at 14:07
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Let $$sum _{n=0} ^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$$ wants be convegent, so according to tests, we should have:
$$lim_{nto infty}{Big|frac{(n + 1)! (n+2)! (x+1)^{(2n + 2)}}{n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}}Big|}<1$$ So,
$$lim_{nto infty}{|(n + 1)(n + 2)x^2|}<1$$
Since for each $xne0$ we see $lim_{nto infty}{|(n+1)(n+2)x^2|}=infty$ so only for $x=0$ our series will be convergent and hence radius of convergence is equal to zero.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Let $$sum _{n=0} ^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$$ wants be convegent, so according to tests, we should have:
$$lim_{nto infty}{Big|frac{(n + 1)! (n+2)! (x+1)^{(2n + 2)}}{n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}}Big|}<1$$ So,
$$lim_{nto infty}{|(n + 1)(n + 2)x^2|}<1$$
Since for each $xne0$ we see $lim_{nto infty}{|(n+1)(n+2)x^2|}=infty$ so only for $x=0$ our series will be convergent and hence radius of convergence is equal to zero.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $$sum _{n=0} ^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$$ wants be convegent, so according to tests, we should have:
$$lim_{nto infty}{Big|frac{(n + 1)! (n+2)! (x+1)^{(2n + 2)}}{n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}}Big|}<1$$ So,
$$lim_{nto infty}{|(n + 1)(n + 2)x^2|}<1$$
Since for each $xne0$ we see $lim_{nto infty}{|(n+1)(n+2)x^2|}=infty$ so only for $x=0$ our series will be convergent and hence radius of convergence is equal to zero.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $$sum _{n=0} ^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$$ wants be convegent, so according to tests, we should have:
$$lim_{nto infty}{Big|frac{(n + 1)! (n+2)! (x+1)^{(2n + 2)}}{n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}}Big|}<1$$ So,
$$lim_{nto infty}{|(n + 1)(n + 2)x^2|}<1$$
Since for each $xne0$ we see $lim_{nto infty}{|(n+1)(n+2)x^2|}=infty$ so only for $x=0$ our series will be convergent and hence radius of convergence is equal to zero.
$endgroup$
Let $$sum _{n=0} ^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$$ wants be convegent, so according to tests, we should have:
$$lim_{nto infty}{Big|frac{(n + 1)! (n+2)! (x+1)^{(2n + 2)}}{n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}}Big|}<1$$ So,
$$lim_{nto infty}{|(n + 1)(n + 2)x^2|}<1$$
Since for each $xne0$ we see $lim_{nto infty}{|(n+1)(n+2)x^2|}=infty$ so only for $x=0$ our series will be convergent and hence radius of convergence is equal to zero.
edited Dec 1 '18 at 8:34
Artem Lenskiy
32
32
answered May 15 '13 at 12:49
SomayeSomaye
2,578712
2,578712
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
$sum_{n=0}^{infty} n!(n+1)!(x+1)^{2n}$ is a power series in $(x+1)^2$. The ratio test for power series will work fine and give a radius of $0$. Latex is explained at [maa.org/latex/ltx-2.html].
$endgroup$
– Angela Richardson
May 15 '13 at 12:42
$begingroup$
but its 2n...so all the odd powers of x are missing. I think that's maybe why. radius is 0 though...
$endgroup$
– Tom
May 15 '13 at 13:02
$begingroup$
when coefficients are zero, you cannot put them in the denominator as required in the ratio test. In some cases (as here) you can recognize it as a power series in another variable and use the ratio test on that one.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
May 15 '13 at 14:07