Bessel integral invovling algebraic and hyperbolic functions












2












$begingroup$


I am desperate in evaluating the following Hankel transform
$$
int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} kmathrm{d} k,
$$

where $J_0(kr)$ is the Bessel function of the first kind and where the interest is focused on where $k$ is small.



By expanding the hyperbolic function about $k=0$,
$$
frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} = 1 + textit{O}(k^2),
$$

and the preceding integral reduces to
$$
int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k = K_0(xi r),
$$

where $K_0(xi r)$ is the modified Bessel function of the second kind.



The problem is the approximation for the hyperbolic function is valid only about $k=0$, while the integral is over the $kin(0,infty)$. How can I justify this controversy?



Or, perhaps it is acceptable to evaluate
$$
int_{0}^{1} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k,
$$

instead, but how to do this?



Thanking you and, please, could you help me...



Wang Zhe










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    I am desperate in evaluating the following Hankel transform
    $$
    int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} kmathrm{d} k,
    $$

    where $J_0(kr)$ is the Bessel function of the first kind and where the interest is focused on where $k$ is small.



    By expanding the hyperbolic function about $k=0$,
    $$
    frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} = 1 + textit{O}(k^2),
    $$

    and the preceding integral reduces to
    $$
    int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k = K_0(xi r),
    $$

    where $K_0(xi r)$ is the modified Bessel function of the second kind.



    The problem is the approximation for the hyperbolic function is valid only about $k=0$, while the integral is over the $kin(0,infty)$. How can I justify this controversy?



    Or, perhaps it is acceptable to evaluate
    $$
    int_{0}^{1} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k,
    $$

    instead, but how to do this?



    Thanking you and, please, could you help me...



    Wang Zhe










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      I am desperate in evaluating the following Hankel transform
      $$
      int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} kmathrm{d} k,
      $$

      where $J_0(kr)$ is the Bessel function of the first kind and where the interest is focused on where $k$ is small.



      By expanding the hyperbolic function about $k=0$,
      $$
      frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} = 1 + textit{O}(k^2),
      $$

      and the preceding integral reduces to
      $$
      int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k = K_0(xi r),
      $$

      where $K_0(xi r)$ is the modified Bessel function of the second kind.



      The problem is the approximation for the hyperbolic function is valid only about $k=0$, while the integral is over the $kin(0,infty)$. How can I justify this controversy?



      Or, perhaps it is acceptable to evaluate
      $$
      int_{0}^{1} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k,
      $$

      instead, but how to do this?



      Thanking you and, please, could you help me...



      Wang Zhe










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am desperate in evaluating the following Hankel transform
      $$
      int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} kmathrm{d} k,
      $$

      where $J_0(kr)$ is the Bessel function of the first kind and where the interest is focused on where $k$ is small.



      By expanding the hyperbolic function about $k=0$,
      $$
      frac{cosh(ky)}{cosh(k)} = 1 + textit{O}(k^2),
      $$

      and the preceding integral reduces to
      $$
      int_{0}^{infty} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k = K_0(xi r),
      $$

      where $K_0(xi r)$ is the modified Bessel function of the second kind.



      The problem is the approximation for the hyperbolic function is valid only about $k=0$, while the integral is over the $kin(0,infty)$. How can I justify this controversy?



      Or, perhaps it is acceptable to evaluate
      $$
      int_{0}^{1} frac{J_0(kr)}{k^2+xi^2} kmathrm{d} k,
      $$

      instead, but how to do this?



      Thanking you and, please, could you help me...



      Wang Zhe







      definite-integrals bessel-functions integral-transforms






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 17 '18 at 15:33







      Zhe Wang

















      asked Dec 17 '18 at 10:20









      Zhe WangZhe Wang

      112




      112






















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