Finding a random position in the unit circle












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Consider the unit circle (with radius $1$, because I can rescale it). Now, choose a random point inside it. How do you do this? The method I'm using is by choosing a random direction, from $0$ to $360$, and then a 'magnitude' variable, from $0$ to $1$. Then, I set the x to the cosine (and the y to the sine), of this direction, multiplied by the magnitude. But this means that, if we consider a ring in this circle representing all points with a magnitude from $0$ to $0.1$, it would have the same likelihood of being selected as the ring with the magnitudes from $0.9$ to $1$, despite $0$-to-$0.1$ having less area. I know that the likelihood of a ring of a single magnitude being selected should be proportional to the magnitude, but how do we express this within an equation?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Consider the unit circle (with radius $1$, because I can rescale it). Now, choose a random point inside it. How do you do this? The method I'm using is by choosing a random direction, from $0$ to $360$, and then a 'magnitude' variable, from $0$ to $1$. Then, I set the x to the cosine (and the y to the sine), of this direction, multiplied by the magnitude. But this means that, if we consider a ring in this circle representing all points with a magnitude from $0$ to $0.1$, it would have the same likelihood of being selected as the ring with the magnitudes from $0.9$ to $1$, despite $0$-to-$0.1$ having less area. I know that the likelihood of a ring of a single magnitude being selected should be proportional to the magnitude, but how do we express this within an equation?










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    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Consider the unit circle (with radius $1$, because I can rescale it). Now, choose a random point inside it. How do you do this? The method I'm using is by choosing a random direction, from $0$ to $360$, and then a 'magnitude' variable, from $0$ to $1$. Then, I set the x to the cosine (and the y to the sine), of this direction, multiplied by the magnitude. But this means that, if we consider a ring in this circle representing all points with a magnitude from $0$ to $0.1$, it would have the same likelihood of being selected as the ring with the magnitudes from $0.9$ to $1$, despite $0$-to-$0.1$ having less area. I know that the likelihood of a ring of a single magnitude being selected should be proportional to the magnitude, but how do we express this within an equation?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Consider the unit circle (with radius $1$, because I can rescale it). Now, choose a random point inside it. How do you do this? The method I'm using is by choosing a random direction, from $0$ to $360$, and then a 'magnitude' variable, from $0$ to $1$. Then, I set the x to the cosine (and the y to the sine), of this direction, multiplied by the magnitude. But this means that, if we consider a ring in this circle representing all points with a magnitude from $0$ to $0.1$, it would have the same likelihood of being selected as the ring with the magnitudes from $0.9$ to $1$, despite $0$-to-$0.1$ having less area. I know that the likelihood of a ring of a single magnitude being selected should be proportional to the magnitude, but how do we express this within an equation?







      computer-science circle random






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      edited Dec 17 '18 at 15:02







      Nathan Skirrow

















      asked Dec 17 '18 at 10:37









      Nathan SkirrowNathan Skirrow

      306




      306






















          3 Answers
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          1












          $begingroup$

          Choose a random number $x$ in interval $(-1,1)$. Choose random number $y$ in interval $(-1,1)$. If inside circle, you got a valid point, else choose another set of random numbers






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          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This is really good, but seems wrong. There's got to be a single mathematical formula that can do this first-time.
            $endgroup$
            – Nathan Skirrow
            Dec 17 '18 at 15:05












          • $begingroup$
            @NathanSkirrow This is not "wrong". This will be uniformly distributed. According to other answers, your way is also uniformaly distributed (contrary to your thought) but I'm not sure how they claim that
            $endgroup$
            – Anvit
            Dec 17 '18 at 15:21



















          2












          $begingroup$

          If you have uniformly distributed random numbers in [0,1), generate two, multiply one by 2π to get a uniformly distributed angle $theta$; then take the square root of the other, which will give you a radius $r$ with PDF $2r$ in [0,1]; then your point is $$(rcostheta, rsintheta) .$$As a general rule, the function into which a uniformly generated random variable must be fed to yield one with PDF $operatorname{f}$, is the inverse of the primitive (indefinite integral) of $operatorname{f}$. Strictly speaking, this recipe ought to have scaling factors & offsets built into it ... but it's easier just to set them post hoc to what they obviously need to be. In this instance you don't need any atall anyway.



          The reason the PDF for $r$ is $2r$ is that the infinitesimally incremental 'catchment' area in a circle is $2πr.dr$ ... or in an arbirary sector of angle $Theta$, $Theta r.dr$.



          But you know what - that other method that Anvit gave - just create random points in a unit square & test each for $x^2+y^2leq1$, & if it fails discard it: though you are discarding a propotion $1-pi/4$ of the attempts, there's no need for square root or circular-function calculation; and it probably does have a lower nett consumption of computational resources. Certainly in fact ... in lieu of some ultrasuperslick algorithm for the computation of those functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            Let $R$ and $Phi$ be independent random variables



            Let $Phi$ have uniform distribution on $[0,2pi)$ or - if you want degrees - on $[0,360)$.



            Let $R$ takes values in $[0,1]$ with CDF $F_R(r)=frac{pi r^2}{pi1^2}=r^2$ for $rin[0,1]$ and consequently PDF $f_R(r)=2r$ if $rin[0,1]$ and $0$ otherwise.



            Then $(RcosPhi,RsinPhi)$ has uniform distribution on disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq1}$.



            The CDF of $R$ is based on the fact that the probability that $|X|<r$ must equalize the area of disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq r}$ divided by the area of whole disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq 1}$.






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              3 Answers
              3






              active

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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              1












              $begingroup$

              Choose a random number $x$ in interval $(-1,1)$. Choose random number $y$ in interval $(-1,1)$. If inside circle, you got a valid point, else choose another set of random numbers






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                This is really good, but seems wrong. There's got to be a single mathematical formula that can do this first-time.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathan Skirrow
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:05












              • $begingroup$
                @NathanSkirrow This is not "wrong". This will be uniformly distributed. According to other answers, your way is also uniformaly distributed (contrary to your thought) but I'm not sure how they claim that
                $endgroup$
                – Anvit
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:21
















              1












              $begingroup$

              Choose a random number $x$ in interval $(-1,1)$. Choose random number $y$ in interval $(-1,1)$. If inside circle, you got a valid point, else choose another set of random numbers






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                This is really good, but seems wrong. There's got to be a single mathematical formula that can do this first-time.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathan Skirrow
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:05












              • $begingroup$
                @NathanSkirrow This is not "wrong". This will be uniformly distributed. According to other answers, your way is also uniformaly distributed (contrary to your thought) but I'm not sure how they claim that
                $endgroup$
                – Anvit
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:21














              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              Choose a random number $x$ in interval $(-1,1)$. Choose random number $y$ in interval $(-1,1)$. If inside circle, you got a valid point, else choose another set of random numbers






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Choose a random number $x$ in interval $(-1,1)$. Choose random number $y$ in interval $(-1,1)$. If inside circle, you got a valid point, else choose another set of random numbers







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Dec 17 '18 at 10:41









              AnvitAnvit

              1,734419




              1,734419












              • $begingroup$
                This is really good, but seems wrong. There's got to be a single mathematical formula that can do this first-time.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathan Skirrow
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:05












              • $begingroup$
                @NathanSkirrow This is not "wrong". This will be uniformly distributed. According to other answers, your way is also uniformaly distributed (contrary to your thought) but I'm not sure how they claim that
                $endgroup$
                – Anvit
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:21


















              • $begingroup$
                This is really good, but seems wrong. There's got to be a single mathematical formula that can do this first-time.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathan Skirrow
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:05












              • $begingroup$
                @NathanSkirrow This is not "wrong". This will be uniformly distributed. According to other answers, your way is also uniformaly distributed (contrary to your thought) but I'm not sure how they claim that
                $endgroup$
                – Anvit
                Dec 17 '18 at 15:21
















              $begingroup$
              This is really good, but seems wrong. There's got to be a single mathematical formula that can do this first-time.
              $endgroup$
              – Nathan Skirrow
              Dec 17 '18 at 15:05






              $begingroup$
              This is really good, but seems wrong. There's got to be a single mathematical formula that can do this first-time.
              $endgroup$
              – Nathan Skirrow
              Dec 17 '18 at 15:05














              $begingroup$
              @NathanSkirrow This is not "wrong". This will be uniformly distributed. According to other answers, your way is also uniformaly distributed (contrary to your thought) but I'm not sure how they claim that
              $endgroup$
              – Anvit
              Dec 17 '18 at 15:21




              $begingroup$
              @NathanSkirrow This is not "wrong". This will be uniformly distributed. According to other answers, your way is also uniformaly distributed (contrary to your thought) but I'm not sure how they claim that
              $endgroup$
              – Anvit
              Dec 17 '18 at 15:21











              2












              $begingroup$

              If you have uniformly distributed random numbers in [0,1), generate two, multiply one by 2π to get a uniformly distributed angle $theta$; then take the square root of the other, which will give you a radius $r$ with PDF $2r$ in [0,1]; then your point is $$(rcostheta, rsintheta) .$$As a general rule, the function into which a uniformly generated random variable must be fed to yield one with PDF $operatorname{f}$, is the inverse of the primitive (indefinite integral) of $operatorname{f}$. Strictly speaking, this recipe ought to have scaling factors & offsets built into it ... but it's easier just to set them post hoc to what they obviously need to be. In this instance you don't need any atall anyway.



              The reason the PDF for $r$ is $2r$ is that the infinitesimally incremental 'catchment' area in a circle is $2πr.dr$ ... or in an arbirary sector of angle $Theta$, $Theta r.dr$.



              But you know what - that other method that Anvit gave - just create random points in a unit square & test each for $x^2+y^2leq1$, & if it fails discard it: though you are discarding a propotion $1-pi/4$ of the attempts, there's no need for square root or circular-function calculation; and it probably does have a lower nett consumption of computational resources. Certainly in fact ... in lieu of some ultrasuperslick algorithm for the computation of those functions.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                If you have uniformly distributed random numbers in [0,1), generate two, multiply one by 2π to get a uniformly distributed angle $theta$; then take the square root of the other, which will give you a radius $r$ with PDF $2r$ in [0,1]; then your point is $$(rcostheta, rsintheta) .$$As a general rule, the function into which a uniformly generated random variable must be fed to yield one with PDF $operatorname{f}$, is the inverse of the primitive (indefinite integral) of $operatorname{f}$. Strictly speaking, this recipe ought to have scaling factors & offsets built into it ... but it's easier just to set them post hoc to what they obviously need to be. In this instance you don't need any atall anyway.



                The reason the PDF for $r$ is $2r$ is that the infinitesimally incremental 'catchment' area in a circle is $2πr.dr$ ... or in an arbirary sector of angle $Theta$, $Theta r.dr$.



                But you know what - that other method that Anvit gave - just create random points in a unit square & test each for $x^2+y^2leq1$, & if it fails discard it: though you are discarding a propotion $1-pi/4$ of the attempts, there's no need for square root or circular-function calculation; and it probably does have a lower nett consumption of computational resources. Certainly in fact ... in lieu of some ultrasuperslick algorithm for the computation of those functions.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  If you have uniformly distributed random numbers in [0,1), generate two, multiply one by 2π to get a uniformly distributed angle $theta$; then take the square root of the other, which will give you a radius $r$ with PDF $2r$ in [0,1]; then your point is $$(rcostheta, rsintheta) .$$As a general rule, the function into which a uniformly generated random variable must be fed to yield one with PDF $operatorname{f}$, is the inverse of the primitive (indefinite integral) of $operatorname{f}$. Strictly speaking, this recipe ought to have scaling factors & offsets built into it ... but it's easier just to set them post hoc to what they obviously need to be. In this instance you don't need any atall anyway.



                  The reason the PDF for $r$ is $2r$ is that the infinitesimally incremental 'catchment' area in a circle is $2πr.dr$ ... or in an arbirary sector of angle $Theta$, $Theta r.dr$.



                  But you know what - that other method that Anvit gave - just create random points in a unit square & test each for $x^2+y^2leq1$, & if it fails discard it: though you are discarding a propotion $1-pi/4$ of the attempts, there's no need for square root or circular-function calculation; and it probably does have a lower nett consumption of computational resources. Certainly in fact ... in lieu of some ultrasuperslick algorithm for the computation of those functions.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  If you have uniformly distributed random numbers in [0,1), generate two, multiply one by 2π to get a uniformly distributed angle $theta$; then take the square root of the other, which will give you a radius $r$ with PDF $2r$ in [0,1]; then your point is $$(rcostheta, rsintheta) .$$As a general rule, the function into which a uniformly generated random variable must be fed to yield one with PDF $operatorname{f}$, is the inverse of the primitive (indefinite integral) of $operatorname{f}$. Strictly speaking, this recipe ought to have scaling factors & offsets built into it ... but it's easier just to set them post hoc to what they obviously need to be. In this instance you don't need any atall anyway.



                  The reason the PDF for $r$ is $2r$ is that the infinitesimally incremental 'catchment' area in a circle is $2πr.dr$ ... or in an arbirary sector of angle $Theta$, $Theta r.dr$.



                  But you know what - that other method that Anvit gave - just create random points in a unit square & test each for $x^2+y^2leq1$, & if it fails discard it: though you are discarding a propotion $1-pi/4$ of the attempts, there's no need for square root or circular-function calculation; and it probably does have a lower nett consumption of computational resources. Certainly in fact ... in lieu of some ultrasuperslick algorithm for the computation of those functions.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Dec 17 '18 at 16:18









                  Nathan Skirrow

                  306




                  306










                  answered Dec 17 '18 at 11:09









                  AmbretteOrriseyAmbretteOrrisey

                  54210




                  54210























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Let $R$ and $Phi$ be independent random variables



                      Let $Phi$ have uniform distribution on $[0,2pi)$ or - if you want degrees - on $[0,360)$.



                      Let $R$ takes values in $[0,1]$ with CDF $F_R(r)=frac{pi r^2}{pi1^2}=r^2$ for $rin[0,1]$ and consequently PDF $f_R(r)=2r$ if $rin[0,1]$ and $0$ otherwise.



                      Then $(RcosPhi,RsinPhi)$ has uniform distribution on disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq1}$.



                      The CDF of $R$ is based on the fact that the probability that $|X|<r$ must equalize the area of disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq r}$ divided by the area of whole disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq 1}$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Let $R$ and $Phi$ be independent random variables



                        Let $Phi$ have uniform distribution on $[0,2pi)$ or - if you want degrees - on $[0,360)$.



                        Let $R$ takes values in $[0,1]$ with CDF $F_R(r)=frac{pi r^2}{pi1^2}=r^2$ for $rin[0,1]$ and consequently PDF $f_R(r)=2r$ if $rin[0,1]$ and $0$ otherwise.



                        Then $(RcosPhi,RsinPhi)$ has uniform distribution on disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq1}$.



                        The CDF of $R$ is based on the fact that the probability that $|X|<r$ must equalize the area of disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq r}$ divided by the area of whole disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq 1}$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          Let $R$ and $Phi$ be independent random variables



                          Let $Phi$ have uniform distribution on $[0,2pi)$ or - if you want degrees - on $[0,360)$.



                          Let $R$ takes values in $[0,1]$ with CDF $F_R(r)=frac{pi r^2}{pi1^2}=r^2$ for $rin[0,1]$ and consequently PDF $f_R(r)=2r$ if $rin[0,1]$ and $0$ otherwise.



                          Then $(RcosPhi,RsinPhi)$ has uniform distribution on disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq1}$.



                          The CDF of $R$ is based on the fact that the probability that $|X|<r$ must equalize the area of disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq r}$ divided by the area of whole disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq 1}$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Let $R$ and $Phi$ be independent random variables



                          Let $Phi$ have uniform distribution on $[0,2pi)$ or - if you want degrees - on $[0,360)$.



                          Let $R$ takes values in $[0,1]$ with CDF $F_R(r)=frac{pi r^2}{pi1^2}=r^2$ for $rin[0,1]$ and consequently PDF $f_R(r)=2r$ if $rin[0,1]$ and $0$ otherwise.



                          Then $(RcosPhi,RsinPhi)$ has uniform distribution on disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq1}$.



                          The CDF of $R$ is based on the fact that the probability that $|X|<r$ must equalize the area of disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq r}$ divided by the area of whole disk ${xinmathbb R^2mid ||x||leq 1}$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 17 '18 at 10:54









                          drhabdrhab

                          103k545136




                          103k545136






























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