$R$ is a noetherian domain and $K=operatorname{Frac}(R)$. If $S$ subring s.t. $Rsubset Ssubset K$, is $S$...












2














$textbf{Q:}$ Suppose $R$ is noetherian domain and $K=operatorname{Frac}(R)$. If $S$ is a subring of $K$ s.t. $Rsubset Ssubset K$, is $S$ noetherian? I suspect this will be the case in general. One can consider $(R:_R I)$ with $S$-ideal $Isubset S$. There is no good reason that $(R:_R I)neq 0$. Furthermore, there is no good reason that $S$ being localization of $R$ in general unless $R$ is Bézout.










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  • Is it not true that every intermediate ring is obtained by a localization? Say, by localizing $R$ at the set of units of $S$? Maybe it is not true. But if it were true, then $S$ would be Noetherian (as a localization of $R$) . Maybe $S$ can be weird so that the localization at its units is properly contained in $S$.
    – rschwieb
    Nov 26 at 21:43








  • 1




    @rschwieb I think I asked a question on this before and someone gave a concrete example that an intermediate ring is not localization. However, not being localization does not say anything about noetherian property of a subring that is not localization. I think there is a loop hole in my logic somewhere. I was expecting the quotient ideal non-trivial but I cannot see any good reason that it is not trivial.
    – user45765
    Nov 26 at 21:47






  • 5




    The answer to both claims (every subring of field of fractions is a localization and every intermediate ring is noetherian) is no: math.stackexchange.com/questions/287245/…
    – freakish
    Nov 26 at 21:51












  • @freakish glad I asked: thanks for the link
    – rschwieb
    Nov 27 at 1:04
















2














$textbf{Q:}$ Suppose $R$ is noetherian domain and $K=operatorname{Frac}(R)$. If $S$ is a subring of $K$ s.t. $Rsubset Ssubset K$, is $S$ noetherian? I suspect this will be the case in general. One can consider $(R:_R I)$ with $S$-ideal $Isubset S$. There is no good reason that $(R:_R I)neq 0$. Furthermore, there is no good reason that $S$ being localization of $R$ in general unless $R$ is Bézout.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Is it not true that every intermediate ring is obtained by a localization? Say, by localizing $R$ at the set of units of $S$? Maybe it is not true. But if it were true, then $S$ would be Noetherian (as a localization of $R$) . Maybe $S$ can be weird so that the localization at its units is properly contained in $S$.
    – rschwieb
    Nov 26 at 21:43








  • 1




    @rschwieb I think I asked a question on this before and someone gave a concrete example that an intermediate ring is not localization. However, not being localization does not say anything about noetherian property of a subring that is not localization. I think there is a loop hole in my logic somewhere. I was expecting the quotient ideal non-trivial but I cannot see any good reason that it is not trivial.
    – user45765
    Nov 26 at 21:47






  • 5




    The answer to both claims (every subring of field of fractions is a localization and every intermediate ring is noetherian) is no: math.stackexchange.com/questions/287245/…
    – freakish
    Nov 26 at 21:51












  • @freakish glad I asked: thanks for the link
    – rschwieb
    Nov 27 at 1:04














2












2








2







$textbf{Q:}$ Suppose $R$ is noetherian domain and $K=operatorname{Frac}(R)$. If $S$ is a subring of $K$ s.t. $Rsubset Ssubset K$, is $S$ noetherian? I suspect this will be the case in general. One can consider $(R:_R I)$ with $S$-ideal $Isubset S$. There is no good reason that $(R:_R I)neq 0$. Furthermore, there is no good reason that $S$ being localization of $R$ in general unless $R$ is Bézout.










share|cite|improve this question















$textbf{Q:}$ Suppose $R$ is noetherian domain and $K=operatorname{Frac}(R)$. If $S$ is a subring of $K$ s.t. $Rsubset Ssubset K$, is $S$ noetherian? I suspect this will be the case in general. One can consider $(R:_R I)$ with $S$-ideal $Isubset S$. There is no good reason that $(R:_R I)neq 0$. Furthermore, there is no good reason that $S$ being localization of $R$ in general unless $R$ is Bézout.







abstract-algebra commutative-algebra






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edited Nov 26 at 21:35









Bernard

118k639112




118k639112










asked Nov 26 at 21:32









user45765

2,5192721




2,5192721












  • Is it not true that every intermediate ring is obtained by a localization? Say, by localizing $R$ at the set of units of $S$? Maybe it is not true. But if it were true, then $S$ would be Noetherian (as a localization of $R$) . Maybe $S$ can be weird so that the localization at its units is properly contained in $S$.
    – rschwieb
    Nov 26 at 21:43








  • 1




    @rschwieb I think I asked a question on this before and someone gave a concrete example that an intermediate ring is not localization. However, not being localization does not say anything about noetherian property of a subring that is not localization. I think there is a loop hole in my logic somewhere. I was expecting the quotient ideal non-trivial but I cannot see any good reason that it is not trivial.
    – user45765
    Nov 26 at 21:47






  • 5




    The answer to both claims (every subring of field of fractions is a localization and every intermediate ring is noetherian) is no: math.stackexchange.com/questions/287245/…
    – freakish
    Nov 26 at 21:51












  • @freakish glad I asked: thanks for the link
    – rschwieb
    Nov 27 at 1:04


















  • Is it not true that every intermediate ring is obtained by a localization? Say, by localizing $R$ at the set of units of $S$? Maybe it is not true. But if it were true, then $S$ would be Noetherian (as a localization of $R$) . Maybe $S$ can be weird so that the localization at its units is properly contained in $S$.
    – rschwieb
    Nov 26 at 21:43








  • 1




    @rschwieb I think I asked a question on this before and someone gave a concrete example that an intermediate ring is not localization. However, not being localization does not say anything about noetherian property of a subring that is not localization. I think there is a loop hole in my logic somewhere. I was expecting the quotient ideal non-trivial but I cannot see any good reason that it is not trivial.
    – user45765
    Nov 26 at 21:47






  • 5




    The answer to both claims (every subring of field of fractions is a localization and every intermediate ring is noetherian) is no: math.stackexchange.com/questions/287245/…
    – freakish
    Nov 26 at 21:51












  • @freakish glad I asked: thanks for the link
    – rschwieb
    Nov 27 at 1:04
















Is it not true that every intermediate ring is obtained by a localization? Say, by localizing $R$ at the set of units of $S$? Maybe it is not true. But if it were true, then $S$ would be Noetherian (as a localization of $R$) . Maybe $S$ can be weird so that the localization at its units is properly contained in $S$.
– rschwieb
Nov 26 at 21:43






Is it not true that every intermediate ring is obtained by a localization? Say, by localizing $R$ at the set of units of $S$? Maybe it is not true. But if it were true, then $S$ would be Noetherian (as a localization of $R$) . Maybe $S$ can be weird so that the localization at its units is properly contained in $S$.
– rschwieb
Nov 26 at 21:43






1




1




@rschwieb I think I asked a question on this before and someone gave a concrete example that an intermediate ring is not localization. However, not being localization does not say anything about noetherian property of a subring that is not localization. I think there is a loop hole in my logic somewhere. I was expecting the quotient ideal non-trivial but I cannot see any good reason that it is not trivial.
– user45765
Nov 26 at 21:47




@rschwieb I think I asked a question on this before and someone gave a concrete example that an intermediate ring is not localization. However, not being localization does not say anything about noetherian property of a subring that is not localization. I think there is a loop hole in my logic somewhere. I was expecting the quotient ideal non-trivial but I cannot see any good reason that it is not trivial.
– user45765
Nov 26 at 21:47




5




5




The answer to both claims (every subring of field of fractions is a localization and every intermediate ring is noetherian) is no: math.stackexchange.com/questions/287245/…
– freakish
Nov 26 at 21:51






The answer to both claims (every subring of field of fractions is a localization and every intermediate ring is noetherian) is no: math.stackexchange.com/questions/287245/…
– freakish
Nov 26 at 21:51














@freakish glad I asked: thanks for the link
– rschwieb
Nov 27 at 1:04




@freakish glad I asked: thanks for the link
– rschwieb
Nov 27 at 1:04















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