How can one prove that for a formal power series f with ord(f) = 1, then ones has the following…?
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Let f(t) be a formal power series and ord(f) = 1, then prove that:
Res(f'(t)/f^n(t)) = 0, if n!= 1
= 1, if n=1
Maybe I don't understand what the order of a formal power series is exactly, but I don't know where to start with this proof.
calculus formal-power-series
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let f(t) be a formal power series and ord(f) = 1, then prove that:
Res(f'(t)/f^n(t)) = 0, if n!= 1
= 1, if n=1
Maybe I don't understand what the order of a formal power series is exactly, but I don't know where to start with this proof.
calculus formal-power-series
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let f(t) be a formal power series and ord(f) = 1, then prove that:
Res(f'(t)/f^n(t)) = 0, if n!= 1
= 1, if n=1
Maybe I don't understand what the order of a formal power series is exactly, but I don't know where to start with this proof.
calculus formal-power-series
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
$endgroup$
Let f(t) be a formal power series and ord(f) = 1, then prove that:
Res(f'(t)/f^n(t)) = 0, if n!= 1
= 1, if n=1
Maybe I don't understand what the order of a formal power series is exactly, but I don't know where to start with this proof.
calculus formal-power-series
calculus formal-power-series
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
AnonymousAnonymous
11
11
add a comment |
add a comment |
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