Missing $i$ while evaluating $int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}$ using residue theorem
$begingroup$
Okay, first I'm a bit ashamed to ask because I already asked a question yesterday about a similar question (it's from far not the same integral though), but I'm missing an $i$ somewhere in the process, that's why I'm asking haha.
I'm asked to evaluate the following integral : $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{cos(z)}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is the real part of
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is much simpler to evaluate obviously.
The poles are at $z=-1pm i$. I evaluate the integral in the upper half circle, so only $-1+i$ is in our domain. When I calculate the derivative (pole of order 2), I get $$frac{1}{1!}lim_{zto-1+i}frac{d}{dz}(z-(-1+i))^2frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2} =lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{ie^{iz}(z^2+2z+2)-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3} = lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3}=frac{-4ie^{i(-1+i)}}{8i^3}=frac{e^{-1-i}}{2}$$ But an $i$ seems to be missing given that when I multiply by $2pi i$, I get $pi ie^{-1-i}$ while WolframAlpha gets $pi e^{-1-i}$. A real (and not imaginary) result would also make more sense given that we then have to take the real part of it to get the original integral with $cos(x)$.
As yesterday, I checked my work several times and couldn't find the mistake, that's why I'm asking haha.
Thanks for your help !
Edit : I forgot to include $(z-(-1+i))^2$ in the process. This is actually a typo, not a mistake.
integration complex-analysis improper-integrals residue-calculus
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Okay, first I'm a bit ashamed to ask because I already asked a question yesterday about a similar question (it's from far not the same integral though), but I'm missing an $i$ somewhere in the process, that's why I'm asking haha.
I'm asked to evaluate the following integral : $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{cos(z)}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is the real part of
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is much simpler to evaluate obviously.
The poles are at $z=-1pm i$. I evaluate the integral in the upper half circle, so only $-1+i$ is in our domain. When I calculate the derivative (pole of order 2), I get $$frac{1}{1!}lim_{zto-1+i}frac{d}{dz}(z-(-1+i))^2frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2} =lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{ie^{iz}(z^2+2z+2)-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3} = lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3}=frac{-4ie^{i(-1+i)}}{8i^3}=frac{e^{-1-i}}{2}$$ But an $i$ seems to be missing given that when I multiply by $2pi i$, I get $pi ie^{-1-i}$ while WolframAlpha gets $pi e^{-1-i}$. A real (and not imaginary) result would also make more sense given that we then have to take the real part of it to get the original integral with $cos(x)$.
As yesterday, I checked my work several times and couldn't find the mistake, that's why I'm asking haha.
Thanks for your help !
Edit : I forgot to include $(z-(-1+i))^2$ in the process. This is actually a typo, not a mistake.
integration complex-analysis improper-integrals residue-calculus
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Okay, first I'm a bit ashamed to ask because I already asked a question yesterday about a similar question (it's from far not the same integral though), but I'm missing an $i$ somewhere in the process, that's why I'm asking haha.
I'm asked to evaluate the following integral : $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{cos(z)}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is the real part of
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is much simpler to evaluate obviously.
The poles are at $z=-1pm i$. I evaluate the integral in the upper half circle, so only $-1+i$ is in our domain. When I calculate the derivative (pole of order 2), I get $$frac{1}{1!}lim_{zto-1+i}frac{d}{dz}(z-(-1+i))^2frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2} =lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{ie^{iz}(z^2+2z+2)-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3} = lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3}=frac{-4ie^{i(-1+i)}}{8i^3}=frac{e^{-1-i}}{2}$$ But an $i$ seems to be missing given that when I multiply by $2pi i$, I get $pi ie^{-1-i}$ while WolframAlpha gets $pi e^{-1-i}$. A real (and not imaginary) result would also make more sense given that we then have to take the real part of it to get the original integral with $cos(x)$.
As yesterday, I checked my work several times and couldn't find the mistake, that's why I'm asking haha.
Thanks for your help !
Edit : I forgot to include $(z-(-1+i))^2$ in the process. This is actually a typo, not a mistake.
integration complex-analysis improper-integrals residue-calculus
$endgroup$
Okay, first I'm a bit ashamed to ask because I already asked a question yesterday about a similar question (it's from far not the same integral though), but I'm missing an $i$ somewhere in the process, that's why I'm asking haha.
I'm asked to evaluate the following integral : $$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{cos(z)}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is the real part of
$$int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}dz$$ which is much simpler to evaluate obviously.
The poles are at $z=-1pm i$. I evaluate the integral in the upper half circle, so only $-1+i$ is in our domain. When I calculate the derivative (pole of order 2), I get $$frac{1}{1!}lim_{zto-1+i}frac{d}{dz}(z-(-1+i))^2frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2} =lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{ie^{iz}(z^2+2z+2)-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3} = lim_{zto-1+i}(z-(-1+i))^2 frac{-e^{iz}2(2z+2)}{(z^2+2z+2)^3}=frac{-4ie^{i(-1+i)}}{8i^3}=frac{e^{-1-i}}{2}$$ But an $i$ seems to be missing given that when I multiply by $2pi i$, I get $pi ie^{-1-i}$ while WolframAlpha gets $pi e^{-1-i}$. A real (and not imaginary) result would also make more sense given that we then have to take the real part of it to get the original integral with $cos(x)$.
As yesterday, I checked my work several times and couldn't find the mistake, that's why I'm asking haha.
Thanks for your help !
Edit : I forgot to include $(z-(-1+i))^2$ in the process. This is actually a typo, not a mistake.
integration complex-analysis improper-integrals residue-calculus
integration complex-analysis improper-integrals residue-calculus
edited Dec 12 '18 at 18:17
José Carlos Santos
163k22131234
163k22131234
asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:34
PoujhPoujh
616516
616516
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
I don't understand your method of computing that residue. Since$$frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}=frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2(z+1-i)^2}=frac{frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}}{(z+1-i)^2}$$and since the Taylor series of $dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$ about $-1+i$ is$$-frac{e^{-1-i}}4-frac{e^{-1-i}i}2(z+1-i)+cdots,$$the residue that you're after is $-dfrac{e^{-1-i}i}2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Well, I used the residue formula for pole of order n, like here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $frac{1}{(n-1)!}lim_{z to z_0}frac{d^{n-1}}{dz}((z-z_0)^n f(z))$
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49
1
$begingroup$
I see. But then you should have obtained $g'(-1+i)$, with $g(z)=dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$. Since $g'(z)=dfrac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3}$, you should have got $g'(-1+i)=-dfrac{ie^{-1-i}}2$, like me.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 12 '18 at 18:01
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Okay, I think I first took the derivative and then multiplied by $(z-z_0)^2$ Which is obviously wrong. I don't see how I didn't noticed it in the two hours I was stuck. Thanks a lot !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}mathrm{Res}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+1)^2},-1+iright) &=frac 1{1!}lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(color{red}{(z-(-1+i))^2}frac{e^{iz}} {(z^2+2z+1)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+i)^2-2e^{iz}(z+1+i)}{(z+1+i)^4}\&=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3} \&=frac{-ie^{-1-i}}2end{align}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Uh sorry this is actually a typo not a mistake I made but thanks for pointing it out. When we evaluate it we also get $8i^3$ in the denominator which doesn't get back that extra $i$.
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:54
1
$begingroup$
I've modified my comment.
$endgroup$
– Philippe Malot
Dec 12 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Thank you, somehow I did the same thing wrong (deriving then multiplying by $(z-z_0)^2$) for two hours withour noticing it. It seems obvious now. Thanks !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:16
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
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$begingroup$
I don't understand your method of computing that residue. Since$$frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}=frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2(z+1-i)^2}=frac{frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}}{(z+1-i)^2}$$and since the Taylor series of $dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$ about $-1+i$ is$$-frac{e^{-1-i}}4-frac{e^{-1-i}i}2(z+1-i)+cdots,$$the residue that you're after is $-dfrac{e^{-1-i}i}2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Well, I used the residue formula for pole of order n, like here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $frac{1}{(n-1)!}lim_{z to z_0}frac{d^{n-1}}{dz}((z-z_0)^n f(z))$
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49
1
$begingroup$
I see. But then you should have obtained $g'(-1+i)$, with $g(z)=dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$. Since $g'(z)=dfrac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3}$, you should have got $g'(-1+i)=-dfrac{ie^{-1-i}}2$, like me.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 12 '18 at 18:01
$begingroup$
Okay, I think I first took the derivative and then multiplied by $(z-z_0)^2$ Which is obviously wrong. I don't see how I didn't noticed it in the two hours I was stuck. Thanks a lot !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don't understand your method of computing that residue. Since$$frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}=frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2(z+1-i)^2}=frac{frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}}{(z+1-i)^2}$$and since the Taylor series of $dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$ about $-1+i$ is$$-frac{e^{-1-i}}4-frac{e^{-1-i}i}2(z+1-i)+cdots,$$the residue that you're after is $-dfrac{e^{-1-i}i}2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Well, I used the residue formula for pole of order n, like here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $frac{1}{(n-1)!}lim_{z to z_0}frac{d^{n-1}}{dz}((z-z_0)^n f(z))$
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49
1
$begingroup$
I see. But then you should have obtained $g'(-1+i)$, with $g(z)=dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$. Since $g'(z)=dfrac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3}$, you should have got $g'(-1+i)=-dfrac{ie^{-1-i}}2$, like me.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 12 '18 at 18:01
$begingroup$
Okay, I think I first took the derivative and then multiplied by $(z-z_0)^2$ Which is obviously wrong. I don't see how I didn't noticed it in the two hours I was stuck. Thanks a lot !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don't understand your method of computing that residue. Since$$frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}=frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2(z+1-i)^2}=frac{frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}}{(z+1-i)^2}$$and since the Taylor series of $dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$ about $-1+i$ is$$-frac{e^{-1-i}}4-frac{e^{-1-i}i}2(z+1-i)+cdots,$$the residue that you're after is $-dfrac{e^{-1-i}i}2$.
$endgroup$
I don't understand your method of computing that residue. Since$$frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+2)^2}=frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2(z+1-i)^2}=frac{frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}}{(z+1-i)^2}$$and since the Taylor series of $dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$ about $-1+i$ is$$-frac{e^{-1-i}}4-frac{e^{-1-i}i}2(z+1-i)+cdots,$$the residue that you're after is $-dfrac{e^{-1-i}i}2$.
answered Dec 12 '18 at 17:46
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
163k22131234
163k22131234
$begingroup$
Well, I used the residue formula for pole of order n, like here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $frac{1}{(n-1)!}lim_{z to z_0}frac{d^{n-1}}{dz}((z-z_0)^n f(z))$
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49
1
$begingroup$
I see. But then you should have obtained $g'(-1+i)$, with $g(z)=dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$. Since $g'(z)=dfrac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3}$, you should have got $g'(-1+i)=-dfrac{ie^{-1-i}}2$, like me.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 12 '18 at 18:01
$begingroup$
Okay, I think I first took the derivative and then multiplied by $(z-z_0)^2$ Which is obviously wrong. I don't see how I didn't noticed it in the two hours I was stuck. Thanks a lot !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Well, I used the residue formula for pole of order n, like here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $frac{1}{(n-1)!}lim_{z to z_0}frac{d^{n-1}}{dz}((z-z_0)^n f(z))$
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49
1
$begingroup$
I see. But then you should have obtained $g'(-1+i)$, with $g(z)=dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$. Since $g'(z)=dfrac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3}$, you should have got $g'(-1+i)=-dfrac{ie^{-1-i}}2$, like me.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 12 '18 at 18:01
$begingroup$
Okay, I think I first took the derivative and then multiplied by $(z-z_0)^2$ Which is obviously wrong. I don't see how I didn't noticed it in the two hours I was stuck. Thanks a lot !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:14
$begingroup$
Well, I used the residue formula for pole of order n, like here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $frac{1}{(n-1)!}lim_{z to z_0}frac{d^{n-1}}{dz}((z-z_0)^n f(z))$
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49
$begingroup$
Well, I used the residue formula for pole of order n, like here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $frac{1}{(n-1)!}lim_{z to z_0}frac{d^{n-1}}{dz}((z-z_0)^n f(z))$
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49
1
1
$begingroup$
I see. But then you should have obtained $g'(-1+i)$, with $g(z)=dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$. Since $g'(z)=dfrac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3}$, you should have got $g'(-1+i)=-dfrac{ie^{-1-i}}2$, like me.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 12 '18 at 18:01
$begingroup$
I see. But then you should have obtained $g'(-1+i)$, with $g(z)=dfrac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}$. Since $g'(z)=dfrac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3}$, you should have got $g'(-1+i)=-dfrac{ie^{-1-i}}2$, like me.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 12 '18 at 18:01
$begingroup$
Okay, I think I first took the derivative and then multiplied by $(z-z_0)^2$ Which is obviously wrong. I don't see how I didn't noticed it in the two hours I was stuck. Thanks a lot !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:14
$begingroup$
Okay, I think I first took the derivative and then multiplied by $(z-z_0)^2$ Which is obviously wrong. I don't see how I didn't noticed it in the two hours I was stuck. Thanks a lot !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}mathrm{Res}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+1)^2},-1+iright) &=frac 1{1!}lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(color{red}{(z-(-1+i))^2}frac{e^{iz}} {(z^2+2z+1)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+i)^2-2e^{iz}(z+1+i)}{(z+1+i)^4}\&=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3} \&=frac{-ie^{-1-i}}2end{align}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Uh sorry this is actually a typo not a mistake I made but thanks for pointing it out. When we evaluate it we also get $8i^3$ in the denominator which doesn't get back that extra $i$.
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:54
1
$begingroup$
I've modified my comment.
$endgroup$
– Philippe Malot
Dec 12 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Thank you, somehow I did the same thing wrong (deriving then multiplying by $(z-z_0)^2$) for two hours withour noticing it. It seems obvious now. Thanks !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}mathrm{Res}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+1)^2},-1+iright) &=frac 1{1!}lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(color{red}{(z-(-1+i))^2}frac{e^{iz}} {(z^2+2z+1)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+i)^2-2e^{iz}(z+1+i)}{(z+1+i)^4}\&=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3} \&=frac{-ie^{-1-i}}2end{align}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Uh sorry this is actually a typo not a mistake I made but thanks for pointing it out. When we evaluate it we also get $8i^3$ in the denominator which doesn't get back that extra $i$.
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:54
1
$begingroup$
I've modified my comment.
$endgroup$
– Philippe Malot
Dec 12 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Thank you, somehow I did the same thing wrong (deriving then multiplying by $(z-z_0)^2$) for two hours withour noticing it. It seems obvious now. Thanks !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}mathrm{Res}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+1)^2},-1+iright) &=frac 1{1!}lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(color{red}{(z-(-1+i))^2}frac{e^{iz}} {(z^2+2z+1)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+i)^2-2e^{iz}(z+1+i)}{(z+1+i)^4}\&=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3} \&=frac{-ie^{-1-i}}2end{align}$$
$endgroup$
$$begin{align}mathrm{Res}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z^2+2z+1)^2},-1+iright) &=frac 1{1!}lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(color{red}{(z-(-1+i))^2}frac{e^{iz}} {(z^2+2z+1)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac d{dz}left(frac{e^{iz}}{(z+1+i)^2}right)\ &=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+i)^2-2e^{iz}(z+1+i)}{(z+1+i)^4}\&=lim_{zto -1+i}frac{ie^{iz}(z+1+3i)}{(z+1+i)^3} \&=frac{-ie^{-1-i}}2end{align}$$
edited Dec 12 '18 at 18:12
answered Dec 12 '18 at 17:52
Philippe MalotPhilippe Malot
2,276824
2,276824
$begingroup$
Uh sorry this is actually a typo not a mistake I made but thanks for pointing it out. When we evaluate it we also get $8i^3$ in the denominator which doesn't get back that extra $i$.
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:54
1
$begingroup$
I've modified my comment.
$endgroup$
– Philippe Malot
Dec 12 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Thank you, somehow I did the same thing wrong (deriving then multiplying by $(z-z_0)^2$) for two hours withour noticing it. It seems obvious now. Thanks !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Uh sorry this is actually a typo not a mistake I made but thanks for pointing it out. When we evaluate it we also get $8i^3$ in the denominator which doesn't get back that extra $i$.
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:54
1
$begingroup$
I've modified my comment.
$endgroup$
– Philippe Malot
Dec 12 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Thank you, somehow I did the same thing wrong (deriving then multiplying by $(z-z_0)^2$) for two hours withour noticing it. It seems obvious now. Thanks !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:16
$begingroup$
Uh sorry this is actually a typo not a mistake I made but thanks for pointing it out. When we evaluate it we also get $8i^3$ in the denominator which doesn't get back that extra $i$.
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:54
$begingroup$
Uh sorry this is actually a typo not a mistake I made but thanks for pointing it out. When we evaluate it we also get $8i^3$ in the denominator which doesn't get back that extra $i$.
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 17:54
1
1
$begingroup$
I've modified my comment.
$endgroup$
– Philippe Malot
Dec 12 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
I've modified my comment.
$endgroup$
– Philippe Malot
Dec 12 '18 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Thank you, somehow I did the same thing wrong (deriving then multiplying by $(z-z_0)^2$) for two hours withour noticing it. It seems obvious now. Thanks !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:16
$begingroup$
Thank you, somehow I did the same thing wrong (deriving then multiplying by $(z-z_0)^2$) for two hours withour noticing it. It seems obvious now. Thanks !
$endgroup$
– Poujh
Dec 12 '18 at 18:16
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