Quotient group $G/H$ is abelian iff $[G,G] subseteq H$












0












$begingroup$


So I've been working on this problem for a while. I just can't seem to find the solution. Also in the previous subquestion, I showed that $G$ is abelian iff $[G,G] = {e}$. Where $e$ is the neutral element of $G$ and $[G,G]$ is the commutator group of $G$.



Let $Htriangleleft G$, Show that $G/H$ is abelian iif $[G,G] subseteq H$.



I've proved this direction



$Rightarrow $)
If $G/H$ is abelian, $forall x,y in G$,



$xHyH = xyH = yxH = yHxH$.



Therefore have that $G$ is abelian. As shown earlier, $[G,G] = {e}$ if $G$ is abelian. So $[G,G] = {e} subseteq H$.



I can't seem to figure out the other direction...



$Leftarrow$)



I only have that for $x,y in G$,



$x^{-1}y^{-1}xy in H$ and that $Htriangleleft G$. It does not seem to lead me anywhere.



Thanks for the help!










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $phi $ is a (surjective) morphism $G to A$ with $A$ abelian then $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$. Conversely if $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$ then $phi : G to G/[G,G]to A$ so $A$ is abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:58


















0












$begingroup$


So I've been working on this problem for a while. I just can't seem to find the solution. Also in the previous subquestion, I showed that $G$ is abelian iff $[G,G] = {e}$. Where $e$ is the neutral element of $G$ and $[G,G]$ is the commutator group of $G$.



Let $Htriangleleft G$, Show that $G/H$ is abelian iif $[G,G] subseteq H$.



I've proved this direction



$Rightarrow $)
If $G/H$ is abelian, $forall x,y in G$,



$xHyH = xyH = yxH = yHxH$.



Therefore have that $G$ is abelian. As shown earlier, $[G,G] = {e}$ if $G$ is abelian. So $[G,G] = {e} subseteq H$.



I can't seem to figure out the other direction...



$Leftarrow$)



I only have that for $x,y in G$,



$x^{-1}y^{-1}xy in H$ and that $Htriangleleft G$. It does not seem to lead me anywhere.



Thanks for the help!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $phi $ is a (surjective) morphism $G to A$ with $A$ abelian then $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$. Conversely if $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$ then $phi : G to G/[G,G]to A$ so $A$ is abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:58
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


So I've been working on this problem for a while. I just can't seem to find the solution. Also in the previous subquestion, I showed that $G$ is abelian iff $[G,G] = {e}$. Where $e$ is the neutral element of $G$ and $[G,G]$ is the commutator group of $G$.



Let $Htriangleleft G$, Show that $G/H$ is abelian iif $[G,G] subseteq H$.



I've proved this direction



$Rightarrow $)
If $G/H$ is abelian, $forall x,y in G$,



$xHyH = xyH = yxH = yHxH$.



Therefore have that $G$ is abelian. As shown earlier, $[G,G] = {e}$ if $G$ is abelian. So $[G,G] = {e} subseteq H$.



I can't seem to figure out the other direction...



$Leftarrow$)



I only have that for $x,y in G$,



$x^{-1}y^{-1}xy in H$ and that $Htriangleleft G$. It does not seem to lead me anywhere.



Thanks for the help!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




So I've been working on this problem for a while. I just can't seem to find the solution. Also in the previous subquestion, I showed that $G$ is abelian iff $[G,G] = {e}$. Where $e$ is the neutral element of $G$ and $[G,G]$ is the commutator group of $G$.



Let $Htriangleleft G$, Show that $G/H$ is abelian iif $[G,G] subseteq H$.



I've proved this direction



$Rightarrow $)
If $G/H$ is abelian, $forall x,y in G$,



$xHyH = xyH = yxH = yHxH$.



Therefore have that $G$ is abelian. As shown earlier, $[G,G] = {e}$ if $G$ is abelian. So $[G,G] = {e} subseteq H$.



I can't seem to figure out the other direction...



$Leftarrow$)



I only have that for $x,y in G$,



$x^{-1}y^{-1}xy in H$ and that $Htriangleleft G$. It does not seem to lead me anywhere.



Thanks for the help!







group-theory






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asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:56









JoeyFJoeyF

62




62












  • $begingroup$
    If $phi $ is a (surjective) morphism $G to A$ with $A$ abelian then $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$. Conversely if $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$ then $phi : G to G/[G,G]to A$ so $A$ is abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:58




















  • $begingroup$
    If $phi $ is a (surjective) morphism $G to A$ with $A$ abelian then $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$. Conversely if $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$ then $phi : G to G/[G,G]to A$ so $A$ is abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:58


















$begingroup$
If $phi $ is a (surjective) morphism $G to A$ with $A$ abelian then $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$. Conversely if $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$ then $phi : G to G/[G,G]to A$ so $A$ is abelian.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 12 '18 at 17:58






$begingroup$
If $phi $ is a (surjective) morphism $G to A$ with $A$ abelian then $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$. Conversely if $[G,G] subset ker(phi)$ then $phi : G to G/[G,G]to A$ so $A$ is abelian.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Dec 12 '18 at 17:58












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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1












$begingroup$

Let :



$$pi : G to G / H$$



Then :



$$forall x, y in G, pi([x,y]) = [pi(x), pi(y)]$$



Yet since $[G,G] subset H$ then $pi([G,G]) = {e}$. Hence we have :



$$forall x, y, [pi(x), pi(y)] = e$$



So : $G/H$ is abelian.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Recall that $[G,G]=langle xyx^{-1}y^{-1} | x,y in Grangle$.



    If $G/H$ is abelian, this means $xyH=yxH$, for all $x,y in G$. Hence $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in H$, so $[G,G] subseteq H$. Be careful here, we don't know that $G$ is abelian as you suggest.



    On the other hand, if $[G,G] subseteq H$, then for all $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in [G,G]$ we have $xyx^{-1}y^{-1}H=H$. But this means $xyH=yxH$, so $G/H$ is abelian.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Beware the commutators are not a subgroup. They only *generate $G,G]$.
      $endgroup$
      – Bernard
      Dec 12 '18 at 18:37










    • $begingroup$
      For the purposes of this proof it makes no difference, but I changed to brackets instead of curly braces if that was the problem
      $endgroup$
      – leibnewtz
      Dec 12 '18 at 22:40













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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    active

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    active

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    1












    $begingroup$

    Let :



    $$pi : G to G / H$$



    Then :



    $$forall x, y in G, pi([x,y]) = [pi(x), pi(y)]$$



    Yet since $[G,G] subset H$ then $pi([G,G]) = {e}$. Hence we have :



    $$forall x, y, [pi(x), pi(y)] = e$$



    So : $G/H$ is abelian.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Let :



      $$pi : G to G / H$$



      Then :



      $$forall x, y in G, pi([x,y]) = [pi(x), pi(y)]$$



      Yet since $[G,G] subset H$ then $pi([G,G]) = {e}$. Hence we have :



      $$forall x, y, [pi(x), pi(y)] = e$$



      So : $G/H$ is abelian.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Let :



        $$pi : G to G / H$$



        Then :



        $$forall x, y in G, pi([x,y]) = [pi(x), pi(y)]$$



        Yet since $[G,G] subset H$ then $pi([G,G]) = {e}$. Hence we have :



        $$forall x, y, [pi(x), pi(y)] = e$$



        So : $G/H$ is abelian.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Let :



        $$pi : G to G / H$$



        Then :



        $$forall x, y in G, pi([x,y]) = [pi(x), pi(y)]$$



        Yet since $[G,G] subset H$ then $pi([G,G]) = {e}$. Hence we have :



        $$forall x, y, [pi(x), pi(y)] = e$$



        So : $G/H$ is abelian.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 12 '18 at 18:08









        ThinkingThinking

        1,13916




        1,13916























            0












            $begingroup$

            Recall that $[G,G]=langle xyx^{-1}y^{-1} | x,y in Grangle$.



            If $G/H$ is abelian, this means $xyH=yxH$, for all $x,y in G$. Hence $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in H$, so $[G,G] subseteq H$. Be careful here, we don't know that $G$ is abelian as you suggest.



            On the other hand, if $[G,G] subseteq H$, then for all $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in [G,G]$ we have $xyx^{-1}y^{-1}H=H$. But this means $xyH=yxH$, so $G/H$ is abelian.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Beware the commutators are not a subgroup. They only *generate $G,G]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Bernard
              Dec 12 '18 at 18:37










            • $begingroup$
              For the purposes of this proof it makes no difference, but I changed to brackets instead of curly braces if that was the problem
              $endgroup$
              – leibnewtz
              Dec 12 '18 at 22:40


















            0












            $begingroup$

            Recall that $[G,G]=langle xyx^{-1}y^{-1} | x,y in Grangle$.



            If $G/H$ is abelian, this means $xyH=yxH$, for all $x,y in G$. Hence $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in H$, so $[G,G] subseteq H$. Be careful here, we don't know that $G$ is abelian as you suggest.



            On the other hand, if $[G,G] subseteq H$, then for all $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in [G,G]$ we have $xyx^{-1}y^{-1}H=H$. But this means $xyH=yxH$, so $G/H$ is abelian.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Beware the commutators are not a subgroup. They only *generate $G,G]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Bernard
              Dec 12 '18 at 18:37










            • $begingroup$
              For the purposes of this proof it makes no difference, but I changed to brackets instead of curly braces if that was the problem
              $endgroup$
              – leibnewtz
              Dec 12 '18 at 22:40
















            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Recall that $[G,G]=langle xyx^{-1}y^{-1} | x,y in Grangle$.



            If $G/H$ is abelian, this means $xyH=yxH$, for all $x,y in G$. Hence $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in H$, so $[G,G] subseteq H$. Be careful here, we don't know that $G$ is abelian as you suggest.



            On the other hand, if $[G,G] subseteq H$, then for all $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in [G,G]$ we have $xyx^{-1}y^{-1}H=H$. But this means $xyH=yxH$, so $G/H$ is abelian.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Recall that $[G,G]=langle xyx^{-1}y^{-1} | x,y in Grangle$.



            If $G/H$ is abelian, this means $xyH=yxH$, for all $x,y in G$. Hence $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in H$, so $[G,G] subseteq H$. Be careful here, we don't know that $G$ is abelian as you suggest.



            On the other hand, if $[G,G] subseteq H$, then for all $xyx^{-1}y^{-1} in [G,G]$ we have $xyx^{-1}y^{-1}H=H$. But this means $xyH=yxH$, so $G/H$ is abelian.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 12 '18 at 22:41

























            answered Dec 12 '18 at 18:17









            leibnewtzleibnewtz

            2,5861717




            2,5861717












            • $begingroup$
              Beware the commutators are not a subgroup. They only *generate $G,G]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Bernard
              Dec 12 '18 at 18:37










            • $begingroup$
              For the purposes of this proof it makes no difference, but I changed to brackets instead of curly braces if that was the problem
              $endgroup$
              – leibnewtz
              Dec 12 '18 at 22:40




















            • $begingroup$
              Beware the commutators are not a subgroup. They only *generate $G,G]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Bernard
              Dec 12 '18 at 18:37










            • $begingroup$
              For the purposes of this proof it makes no difference, but I changed to brackets instead of curly braces if that was the problem
              $endgroup$
              – leibnewtz
              Dec 12 '18 at 22:40


















            $begingroup$
            Beware the commutators are not a subgroup. They only *generate $G,G]$.
            $endgroup$
            – Bernard
            Dec 12 '18 at 18:37




            $begingroup$
            Beware the commutators are not a subgroup. They only *generate $G,G]$.
            $endgroup$
            – Bernard
            Dec 12 '18 at 18:37












            $begingroup$
            For the purposes of this proof it makes no difference, but I changed to brackets instead of curly braces if that was the problem
            $endgroup$
            – leibnewtz
            Dec 12 '18 at 22:40






            $begingroup$
            For the purposes of this proof it makes no difference, but I changed to brackets instead of curly braces if that was the problem
            $endgroup$
            – leibnewtz
            Dec 12 '18 at 22:40




















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