Definition of Differential operator












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Definition 2.2, page 19 Let $M$ be a smooth manifold and $E_i rightarrow M$ be two smooth vector bundles. A PDO $P:Gamma (M,E_0) rightarrow Gamma(M,E_1)$ of order $k$ is a a linear map which satisfies the following properties:




  1. $P$ is local in the sense that if $s in Gamma(M,E_0)$ vanishes on an open subset $U subseteq M$, then so does $Ps$.


  2. If $x:U rightarrow Bbb R^n$ is a chart, $phi_i: E_i Big|_U rightarrow U times Bbb K ^{p_i}$ a trivialization, then the localizaed operator $phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}$ can be written as
    $$ (phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}) (f)(y) = sum_{|alpha| le k } A^{(alpha)}(y) frac{partial^alpha}{partial x_alpha} f(y) $$
    for each $f in C^infty(U, Bbb K^{p_0})$ where $A^alpha:U rightarrow M_{p_1,p_0}(Bbb K)$. is a smooth function.





I returned to this definition after working on it for a while. I am confused now - why doesn't 2 => 1?










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    Definition 2.2, page 19 Let $M$ be a smooth manifold and $E_i rightarrow M$ be two smooth vector bundles. A PDO $P:Gamma (M,E_0) rightarrow Gamma(M,E_1)$ of order $k$ is a a linear map which satisfies the following properties:




    1. $P$ is local in the sense that if $s in Gamma(M,E_0)$ vanishes on an open subset $U subseteq M$, then so does $Ps$.


    2. If $x:U rightarrow Bbb R^n$ is a chart, $phi_i: E_i Big|_U rightarrow U times Bbb K ^{p_i}$ a trivialization, then the localizaed operator $phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}$ can be written as
      $$ (phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}) (f)(y) = sum_{|alpha| le k } A^{(alpha)}(y) frac{partial^alpha}{partial x_alpha} f(y) $$
      for each $f in C^infty(U, Bbb K^{p_0})$ where $A^alpha:U rightarrow M_{p_1,p_0}(Bbb K)$. is a smooth function.





    I returned to this definition after working on it for a while. I am confused now - why doesn't 2 => 1?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0


      1



      $begingroup$



      Definition 2.2, page 19 Let $M$ be a smooth manifold and $E_i rightarrow M$ be two smooth vector bundles. A PDO $P:Gamma (M,E_0) rightarrow Gamma(M,E_1)$ of order $k$ is a a linear map which satisfies the following properties:




      1. $P$ is local in the sense that if $s in Gamma(M,E_0)$ vanishes on an open subset $U subseteq M$, then so does $Ps$.


      2. If $x:U rightarrow Bbb R^n$ is a chart, $phi_i: E_i Big|_U rightarrow U times Bbb K ^{p_i}$ a trivialization, then the localizaed operator $phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}$ can be written as
        $$ (phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}) (f)(y) = sum_{|alpha| le k } A^{(alpha)}(y) frac{partial^alpha}{partial x_alpha} f(y) $$
        for each $f in C^infty(U, Bbb K^{p_0})$ where $A^alpha:U rightarrow M_{p_1,p_0}(Bbb K)$. is a smooth function.





      I returned to this definition after working on it for a while. I am confused now - why doesn't 2 => 1?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Definition 2.2, page 19 Let $M$ be a smooth manifold and $E_i rightarrow M$ be two smooth vector bundles. A PDO $P:Gamma (M,E_0) rightarrow Gamma(M,E_1)$ of order $k$ is a a linear map which satisfies the following properties:




      1. $P$ is local in the sense that if $s in Gamma(M,E_0)$ vanishes on an open subset $U subseteq M$, then so does $Ps$.


      2. If $x:U rightarrow Bbb R^n$ is a chart, $phi_i: E_i Big|_U rightarrow U times Bbb K ^{p_i}$ a trivialization, then the localizaed operator $phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}$ can be written as
        $$ (phi_1 circ P circ phi_0^{-1}) (f)(y) = sum_{|alpha| le k } A^{(alpha)}(y) frac{partial^alpha}{partial x_alpha} f(y) $$
        for each $f in C^infty(U, Bbb K^{p_0})$ where $A^alpha:U rightarrow M_{p_1,p_0}(Bbb K)$. is a smooth function.





      I returned to this definition after working on it for a while. I am confused now - why doesn't 2 => 1?







      differential-geometry differential-topology differential-operators






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      asked Dec 10 '18 at 9:07









      CL.CL.

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          The problem is that without imposing (1) it does not make much sense to talk about (2). Statement (1) essentialy means that $P$ can be localized in a rather naive sense without problems. The point is that (1) implies that for any open subset $Usubset M$ and sections $s_1,s_2$ of $E_0$, the fact that $s_1|_U=s_2|_U$ implies $P(s_1)|_U=P(s_2)|_U$. Thus, there is a well defined operator $P|_U:Gamma(U,E_0)toGamma(U,E_1)$ defined by choosing extensions of locally defined sections, applying $P$ and restricting the result. The condition in (2) actually implicitly uses the restriction of $P$ to $U$ and (1) is needed for this restriction to be sufficiently closely related to $P$ itself to be useful. In the context you are studying, you can think about pseudodifferential operators as examples of operators for which localization is a much more subtle issue.



          In fact, it is evan true that for linear operators (1) implies (2), by the so-called Peetre-theorem.






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            $begingroup$

            The problem is that without imposing (1) it does not make much sense to talk about (2). Statement (1) essentialy means that $P$ can be localized in a rather naive sense without problems. The point is that (1) implies that for any open subset $Usubset M$ and sections $s_1,s_2$ of $E_0$, the fact that $s_1|_U=s_2|_U$ implies $P(s_1)|_U=P(s_2)|_U$. Thus, there is a well defined operator $P|_U:Gamma(U,E_0)toGamma(U,E_1)$ defined by choosing extensions of locally defined sections, applying $P$ and restricting the result. The condition in (2) actually implicitly uses the restriction of $P$ to $U$ and (1) is needed for this restriction to be sufficiently closely related to $P$ itself to be useful. In the context you are studying, you can think about pseudodifferential operators as examples of operators for which localization is a much more subtle issue.



            In fact, it is evan true that for linear operators (1) implies (2), by the so-called Peetre-theorem.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              The problem is that without imposing (1) it does not make much sense to talk about (2). Statement (1) essentialy means that $P$ can be localized in a rather naive sense without problems. The point is that (1) implies that for any open subset $Usubset M$ and sections $s_1,s_2$ of $E_0$, the fact that $s_1|_U=s_2|_U$ implies $P(s_1)|_U=P(s_2)|_U$. Thus, there is a well defined operator $P|_U:Gamma(U,E_0)toGamma(U,E_1)$ defined by choosing extensions of locally defined sections, applying $P$ and restricting the result. The condition in (2) actually implicitly uses the restriction of $P$ to $U$ and (1) is needed for this restriction to be sufficiently closely related to $P$ itself to be useful. In the context you are studying, you can think about pseudodifferential operators as examples of operators for which localization is a much more subtle issue.



              In fact, it is evan true that for linear operators (1) implies (2), by the so-called Peetre-theorem.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                The problem is that without imposing (1) it does not make much sense to talk about (2). Statement (1) essentialy means that $P$ can be localized in a rather naive sense without problems. The point is that (1) implies that for any open subset $Usubset M$ and sections $s_1,s_2$ of $E_0$, the fact that $s_1|_U=s_2|_U$ implies $P(s_1)|_U=P(s_2)|_U$. Thus, there is a well defined operator $P|_U:Gamma(U,E_0)toGamma(U,E_1)$ defined by choosing extensions of locally defined sections, applying $P$ and restricting the result. The condition in (2) actually implicitly uses the restriction of $P$ to $U$ and (1) is needed for this restriction to be sufficiently closely related to $P$ itself to be useful. In the context you are studying, you can think about pseudodifferential operators as examples of operators for which localization is a much more subtle issue.



                In fact, it is evan true that for linear operators (1) implies (2), by the so-called Peetre-theorem.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The problem is that without imposing (1) it does not make much sense to talk about (2). Statement (1) essentialy means that $P$ can be localized in a rather naive sense without problems. The point is that (1) implies that for any open subset $Usubset M$ and sections $s_1,s_2$ of $E_0$, the fact that $s_1|_U=s_2|_U$ implies $P(s_1)|_U=P(s_2)|_U$. Thus, there is a well defined operator $P|_U:Gamma(U,E_0)toGamma(U,E_1)$ defined by choosing extensions of locally defined sections, applying $P$ and restricting the result. The condition in (2) actually implicitly uses the restriction of $P$ to $U$ and (1) is needed for this restriction to be sufficiently closely related to $P$ itself to be useful. In the context you are studying, you can think about pseudodifferential operators as examples of operators for which localization is a much more subtle issue.



                In fact, it is evan true that for linear operators (1) implies (2), by the so-called Peetre-theorem.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 10 '18 at 11:17









                Andreas CapAndreas Cap

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                11.2k923






























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